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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
What are the exceptional situations in which a CMS license holder is permitted to remove from a custody account any of the properties of its customer?
I. To transfer the commodity to any individual entitled to this right.
II. To make a statute-disapproved transaction within Singapore.
III. To transfer the asset to another person or account in line with the customer’s written instructions.
IV. To satisfy the customer’s obligation arising from any dealing by the owners of the asset with the customer through false trading.Correct
For meeting the responsibility of the customer resulting from any dealing in shares, investing in futures contracts, or leveraged foreign exchange trading by the owners of the asset to the customer; passing the asset to any entity or account in compliance with the written orders of the customer; lending of securities; mortgaging, charging, to make a deposit in compliance with Regulation 30; or to make a payment approved by statute, he’s allowed to do so.
Incorrect
For meeting the responsibility of the customer resulting from any dealing in shares, investing in futures contracts, or leveraged foreign exchange trading by the owners of the asset to the customer; passing the asset to any entity or account in compliance with the written orders of the customer; lending of securities; mortgaging, charging, to make a deposit in compliance with Regulation 30; or to make a payment approved by statute, he’s allowed to do so.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
We expect investors in the financial market to exercise a high level of ethical behavior. This is defined by the rules on consumer activity under the SFA and SFR. The laws apply to activities arising in Singapore regarding stocks, whether such securities are listed or quoted in or outside Singapore. Which of the given options explain the aforementioned statement?
Correct
This implies that the provisions have extraterritorial scope. If the act is considered being wrongdoing in Singapore, and if the transactions take place outside Singapore, it will still be deemed to be misconduct. Similarly, regarding shares listed or cited on the securities exchange in Singapore, the rules extend to activities arising outside Singapore.
Incorrect
This implies that the provisions have extraterritorial scope. If the act is considered being wrongdoing in Singapore, and if the transactions take place outside Singapore, it will still be deemed to be misconduct. Similarly, regarding shares listed or cited on the securities exchange in Singapore, the rules extend to activities arising outside Singapore.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following statements correctly illustrate the concept of false trading/market rigging?
Correct
Instead of allowing normal market forces to prevail, we can define fraudulent selling and market rigging as the use of artificial means or strategies to manipulate the price of some shares or to trigger uncertainty without a factual basis in the market. Such behavior is illegal and strict sanctions, reputational consequences, and probably a suspension or revocation of the permit will be enforced on any CMS license holder or delegate who commits such offenses.
Incorrect
Instead of allowing normal market forces to prevail, we can define fraudulent selling and market rigging as the use of artificial means or strategies to manipulate the price of some shares or to trigger uncertainty without a factual basis in the market. Such behavior is illegal and strict sanctions, reputational consequences, and probably a suspension or revocation of the permit will be enforced on any CMS license holder or delegate who commits such offenses.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
False trading is one of the common types of market misconduct that includes:
I. Triggering the volatility in the market price of stocks by buying securities that do not entail a change in the beneficial ownership of such securities.
II. Attempts to develop an illusion of active stock dealing.
III. Implementation of two trades of the shares of a company where the purchases have the impact of a rise in the securities on the financial market.
IV. Creation of trades designed to offer a false impression regarding any securities’ market price.Correct
False Trading involves the attempt to produce an illusion of successful trade in any securities; the acquisition and selling of any securities that do not include a change in the beneficial ownership of such securities to cause volatility in the stock price of the securities on the market; and the creation of transactions designed to offer a false appearance regarding the securities.
Incorrect
False Trading involves the attempt to produce an illusion of successful trade in any securities; the acquisition and selling of any securities that do not include a change in the beneficial ownership of such securities to cause volatility in the stock price of the securities on the market; and the creation of transactions designed to offer a false appearance regarding the securities.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
An individual places 5 orders through a dealer to purchase a certain amount of shares of Company D. Then he puts another set of orders by another intermediary to sell the same amount of Company D securities. The same number of company’s shares are purchased and sold by multiple traders successfully, but without a change of ownership by the same individual. In the above case, what is the expected impact as per the concept of wash sale?
Correct
The intended result is to establish the illusion of aggressive trade in the stock of Company D. A wash selling is a market-based deal that entails no alteration in the beneficial ownership of any shares. SFA Section 197(5)3 specifies that if an individual who had an interest in shares prior to the purchase or sale continues to have an interest in securities after the buying or selling, there is no shift in the beneficial ownership of the asset.
Incorrect
The intended result is to establish the illusion of aggressive trade in the stock of Company D. A wash selling is a market-based deal that entails no alteration in the beneficial ownership of any shares. SFA Section 197(5)3 specifies that if an individual who had an interest in shares prior to the purchase or sale continues to have an interest in securities after the buying or selling, there is no shift in the beneficial ownership of the asset.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
As per the SFA section 200(1), which of the following actions are regarded as offenses against the market conduct resulting in penalties?
I. Recording or preserving electronic records that are known to be useful in specific content.
II. Publishing any assertion or prediction that a person knows to be false or dishonest to persuade another person to trade in securities.
III. Any truthful and justified shielding of material evidence.
IV. Impulsive formation or publication of some misleading announcement or prediction.Correct
It is a violation to persuade another person to trade with securities by making or publishing any assertion, pledge, or prediction that he knows is dishonest; any fraudulent concealment of material facts; any dubious claim or forecast made or published; or capturing or storing information in or by electronic or another system that is known to be deceptive.
Incorrect
It is a violation to persuade another person to trade with securities by making or publishing any assertion, pledge, or prediction that he knows is dishonest; any fraudulent concealment of material facts; any dubious claim or forecast made or published; or capturing or storing information in or by electronic or another system that is known to be deceptive.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
During the Pre-Open process, Individual Y entered 5 buying orders for a certain dealer at a price between $3.38 and $3.48 totaling 1.1 million shares representing 62.7 percent of all purchase amounts queuing at the relevant period. He also placed a purchase order for 100,000 shares of the same counter at $3.35 at the same time. He later, right before the opening price was calculated, removed the sales orders at 8.59 am. As per the above scenario, what could his real agenda be?
Correct
Use of Manipulative and Fraudulent Devices: Individual Y demonstrated that he has little intention of executing his order by withdrawing the purchasing orders. His true aim is to allow the opening price of the market at 9 am to be at a desirable amount for him to meet his purchase order at $3.35, resulting in a benefit for himself.
Incorrect
Use of Manipulative and Fraudulent Devices: Individual Y demonstrated that he has little intention of executing his order by withdrawing the purchasing orders. His true aim is to allow the opening price of the market at 9 am to be at a desirable amount for him to meet his purchase order at $3.35, resulting in a benefit for himself.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
It is forbidden to spread information on illicit activities in order to discourage those in the knowledge from exploiting the subsequent price fluctuations and profit from them. This is also referred to as:
Correct
Much as they prohibit it to use coercive devices because they establish artificial market trends, they also prohibit it to disseminate knowledge about illegal transactions. This is to keep those who have some knowledge from taking advantage of the subsequent price fluctuations and gaining from them. To discourage unacceptable activities, this is really a “blackout law”.
Incorrect
Much as they prohibit it to use coercive devices because they establish artificial market trends, they also prohibit it to disseminate knowledge about illegal transactions. This is to keep those who have some knowledge from taking advantage of the subsequent price fluctuations and gaining from them. To discourage unacceptable activities, this is really a “blackout law”.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Person X instructed Person A to use misleading tactics to affect the price of a company’s shares. Individual X understood that the actions would trigger a certain path to shift the price of the shares. In hopes for them to profit from it, Person X then tells others of the potential consequence. Because of the market movements, Person X hopes to take a share in the gains generated by all other individuals. The following example is a representation of:
Correct
SFA Section 202 makes it an offence to circulate, disseminate, or authorise, or be concerned in the circulation or dissemination of any statement or information to the effect that the price of any securities of a company or a business trust will, or is likely, to rise or fall or be maintained as a result of an illegal transaction.
Incorrect
SFA Section 202 makes it an offence to circulate, disseminate, or authorise, or be concerned in the circulation or dissemination of any statement or information to the effect that the price of any securities of a company or a business trust will, or is likely, to rise or fall or be maintained as a result of an illegal transaction.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following key features make a certain piece of information as an “Insider Information”?
I. Data that is usually not accessible.
II. Information that is easily observable and accessible.
III. Data whose exposure would have a null effect on the stock price.
IV. Data that would undoubtedly have a substantial impact on the pricing of the valuation of shares if it were known.Correct
Insider information is information that is not publicly accessible that is expected to have a material impact on the pricing or the valuation of shares if it is known. If the information is going to affect people who normally engage in securities in determining whether to purchase, subscribe or sell the securities, it would incline a rational person to expect information to have a material impact.
Incorrect
Insider information is information that is not publicly accessible that is expected to have a material impact on the pricing or the valuation of shares if it is known. If the information is going to affect people who normally engage in securities in determining whether to purchase, subscribe or sell the securities, it would incline a rational person to expect information to have a material impact.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
For which type of insider(s) is it necessary to prove that he/they has/have understood that the knowledge in his/their hands was not readily accessible, it was capital intensive, and that he/they were not related to the organization through which he knew price-sensitive data?
I. A Connected Insider
II. A Non-Connected Insider
III. A Tippee
IV. A Matching Order InsiderCorrect
In the case of a non-connected person (‘tippee’), it must be shown that the person understood that the knowledge in his hands was not widely accessible and price sensitive. A tippee is distinguished from a related insider in that a tippee does not have to be linked to the business he knows price-sensitive information about.
Incorrect
In the case of a non-connected person (‘tippee’), it must be shown that the person understood that the knowledge in his hands was not widely accessible and price sensitive. A tippee is distinguished from a related insider in that a tippee does not have to be linked to the business he knows price-sensitive information about.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
What are the accurate specifications for proving that an individual is related to a certain corporation?
I. He/she being a disciple of a major shareholder in a foreign non-related company holds a role that allows them access to the confidential material.
II. The individual is an official of an organization or a similar business.
III. He/she holds a role that, because of some commercial arrangement occurring between them and that firm allows them access to price-sensitive details.
IV. He/she is a major shareholder in the company or a similar company.Correct
A person is linked to a company if he/she is an agent of the company or in a related company; is a significant shareholder in that corporation or in a linked corporation; holds a role that can be presumed to allow them access to price-sensitive data because of some business arrangement with them and that particular corporation, or is an officer of a significant shareholder in that corporation.
Incorrect
A person is linked to a company if he/she is an agent of the company or in a related company; is a significant shareholder in that corporation or in a linked corporation; holds a role that can be presumed to allow them access to price-sensitive data because of some business arrangement with them and that particular corporation, or is an officer of a significant shareholder in that corporation.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following differences accurately distinguish a tippee (non-connected insider) from a connected insider?
Correct
First, a tippee does not have to be linked to the business about which he knows price-sensitive data; second, it is essential for a linked insider to prove that they should have fairly known that they had information that is not widely accessible and that is price-sensitive unlike a tippee; third, there is also a difference in the presumption of evidence against the connected insider in that if it is seen that he/she has classified price-sensitive information, it would be assumed that he/she understood that the information was not widely accessible and that it was price-sensitive unless proven otherwise.
Incorrect
First, a tippee does not have to be linked to the business about which he knows price-sensitive data; second, it is essential for a linked insider to prove that they should have fairly known that they had information that is not widely accessible and that is price-sensitive unlike a tippee; third, there is also a difference in the presumption of evidence against the connected insider in that if it is seen that he/she has classified price-sensitive information, it would be assumed that he/she understood that the information was not widely accessible and that it was price-sensitive unless proven otherwise.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Unlike earlier market infringement regulations, all that is required/mandated for a tippee is that he must:
Correct
A tippee must not be the one who collects information from an informant, directly or indirectly; have an agreement or connection with the insider; and be mindful that the insider himself is prohibited from dealing. Everything that is needed is that the price-sensitive information must be possessed by the tippee and that he/she must ensure that the data is not widely accessible and price-sensitive. Where the data comes from is not important.
Incorrect
A tippee must not be the one who collects information from an informant, directly or indirectly; have an agreement or connection with the insider; and be mindful that the insider himself is prohibited from dealing. Everything that is needed is that the price-sensitive information must be possessed by the tippee and that he/she must ensure that the data is not widely accessible and price-sensitive. Where the data comes from is not important.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
In order to inquire about a certain sector of the firm, a client visits a financial institution. While waiting for his turn, a staff member approaches him to sell him an equity product. What is the staff member practicing in this scenario?
Correct
Securities hawking refers to making a bid in an unsolicited meeting for securities. The worker is engaged in the hawking of securities if he has not received the approval of the client or has not asked if the customer is interested in listening to the sales pitch before addressing the customer.
Incorrect
Securities hawking refers to making a bid in an unsolicited meeting for securities. The worker is engaged in the hawking of securities if he has not received the approval of the client or has not asked if the customer is interested in listening to the sales pitch before addressing the customer.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
During any un-informed interactions with customers or other investors, representatives are not authorized to sell or request any subscription or acquisition of shares. This condition is not applicable to:
Correct
This provision does not extend to offers made for shares which do not require a prospectus, such as offers made to investment firms and approved investors. The securities hawking ban attempts to avoid pressure on retail consumers to market financial goods.
Incorrect
This provision does not extend to offers made for shares which do not require a prospectus, such as offers made to investment firms and approved investors. The securities hawking ban attempts to avoid pressure on retail consumers to market financial goods.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
What is the term used for the instance where at the time of selling, the vendor is not in the custody of shares or has not otherwise made arrangements to conform with the responsibility to deliver?
Correct
Short Selling is the offering, at the time of the sale, of shares that the seller does not own. At the time of the offering, in ‘covered’ short selling, the trader has lent the securities or otherwise arranged to perform his responsibility to supply the securities. In ‘uncovered’ short selling, the trader is not in possession of shares at the time of the sale or has not otherwise made plans to perform his duty of supply.
Incorrect
Short Selling is the offering, at the time of the sale, of shares that the seller does not own. At the time of the offering, in ‘covered’ short selling, the trader has lent the securities or otherwise arranged to perform his responsibility to supply the securities. In ‘uncovered’ short selling, the trader is not in possession of shares at the time of the sale or has not otherwise made plans to perform his duty of supply.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the given points correctly describe the true motives and the subsequent advantages of Short Selling?
I. This encourages risk control and the growth of hedging practices.
II. In order to cause others to sell, false rumors are passed, thus taking prices down in trepidation.
III. The entity expects that the price of a security will drop, so it sells the security first, hoping that after the price has declined to make a profit from the sale, he/she will purchase the securities back at a lower price later on.
IV. The motive behind this is to contribute to chaotic markets under situations of considerable financial volatility.Correct
The rationale for short selling is because the individual expects that the price of a security will drop, so it first sells the security, believing that after the price has decreased to make a profit from the sale, he or she will purchase the shares back at a cheaper price later. It ensures that price formation is more effective, improves market liquidity, and encourages the management of risk and the production of hedging activities.
Incorrect
The rationale for short selling is because the individual expects that the price of a security will drop, so it first sells the security, believing that after the price has decreased to make a profit from the sale, he or she will purchase the shares back at a cheaper price later. It ensures that price formation is more effective, improves market liquidity, and encourages the management of risk and the production of hedging activities.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Who buys securities on behalf of traders who do not have shares for delivery on settlement day to minimize the detrimental effect of short selling and its potentially destructive effect on the application phase?
Correct
Central Depository (Pte) Limited (CDP) buys securities on behalf of vendors that do not hold delivery securities on the day of settlement. When the CDP carries out the buy-in, the vendor who fails to supply the securities is mandated to pay the cost of purchase plus an extra penalty.
Incorrect
Central Depository (Pte) Limited (CDP) buys securities on behalf of vendors that do not hold delivery securities on the day of settlement. When the CDP carries out the buy-in, the vendor who fails to supply the securities is mandated to pay the cost of purchase plus an extra penalty.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
If the issuer of the CMS license borrows from the holders of the shares, how much equity/collateral it must insure for the market value of the securities lent?
Correct
If the holder of the CMS license borrows from the owner of the shares, the holder of the CMS license must guarantee that up to 100% of the market value of the securities lent is insured. Similarly, whenever the issuer of the CMS license lends shares, including those belonging to its clients, the creditor must get collateral for up to 100% of the market value of the bonds lent.
Incorrect
If the holder of the CMS license borrows from the owner of the shares, the holder of the CMS license must guarantee that up to 100% of the market value of the securities lent is insured. Similarly, whenever the issuer of the CMS license lends shares, including those belonging to its clients, the creditor must get collateral for up to 100% of the market value of the bonds lent.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which term(s) could be used to accurately specify the nature of the offenses related to the Market Misconduct?
I. Psychological offenses
II. Cultural offenses
III. Criminal offenses
IV. Social offensesCorrect
The violations of market misconduct are criminal and bear substantial fines of up to S$250,000 or imprisonment of 7 years or both. A CMS license holder and its affiliates must disclose any suspicion of attempted market fraud, false selling, or insider trading promptly to SGX-ST.
Incorrect
The violations of market misconduct are criminal and bear substantial fines of up to S$250,000 or imprisonment of 7 years or both. A CMS license holder and its affiliates must disclose any suspicion of attempted market fraud, false selling, or insider trading promptly to SGX-ST.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
The CMS License Holder or its members, if proven guilty, may face legal litigation in which the defendant may offer redress and the Jurisdiction is empowered to put an action before the judge, resulting in a civil penalty being levied on the court instead of the criminal penalty. Such a civil penalty could be greater than two of the amounts given below. Which of the following alternatives are the right ones?
I. If he is not a corporation, a sum equivalent to $50,000, or $100,000 if he is a corporation.
II. A sum not greater than 3 times the amount of benefit received by the offender or the amount of damage he avoided owing to the infringement.
III. A fine of at least $500 only if he is an entity otherwise no fine.
IV. A total that, owing to the violation, is 10 times the amount of damage the individual has incurred or the amount of benefit he has prevented.Correct
Such civil penalties can be more than either an amount not greater than 3 times the amount of benefit the plaintiff has received or the amount of damages he has avoided as a result of the violation or an amount equal to $50,000 if he is not a company or $100,000 if he is a company.
Incorrect
Such civil penalties can be more than either an amount not greater than 3 times the amount of benefit the plaintiff has received or the amount of damages he has avoided as a result of the violation or an amount equal to $50,000 if he is not a company or $100,000 if he is a company.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Besides the criminal charges brought against the defendant or having to pay civil fines, the owners of the CMS license may face civil liability through court action taken against them for damages suffered by the market actors because of their fraudulent acts. The individual who could bring such a civil suit is one who:
I. Had paid the fines/penalties as per the regulations.
II. Had sustained market damages due to the repercussions of the breach.
III. Had avoided any exchanges that had descriptions similar to those that resulted in a breach.
IV. Had entered into transactions of the same nature simultaneously with the commission of the crime.Correct
The person who can bring such a civil suit is one who has entered into trades of the same nature simultaneously with the commission of the offense; and who has incurred market damages because of the consequences of the violation.
Incorrect
The person who can bring such a civil suit is one who has entered into trades of the same nature simultaneously with the commission of the offense; and who has incurred market damages because of the consequences of the violation.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
What was the initial motive behind the formation of the Central Provident Fund (CPF) savings scheme?
Correct
The Central Provident Fund (CPF) pension plan intended to be a retirement savings scheme. The government, however, made some compromises in May 1986 and amended the CPF Act to encourage CPF members to use part of their ordinary account (OA) investments to invest in permitted investment items in order to maximize the value of their assets by the time they retire.
Incorrect
The Central Provident Fund (CPF) pension plan intended to be a retirement savings scheme. The government, however, made some compromises in May 1986 and amended the CPF Act to encourage CPF members to use part of their ordinary account (OA) investments to invest in permitted investment items in order to maximize the value of their assets by the time they retire.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
What is that one particular prerequisite that is required for investing capital under CPFIS-OA but not necessary in case of CPFIS-SA?
Correct
For investments made under CPFIS-OA but not needed for CPFIS-SA, a CPF Investment Account is required. Under CPFIS-OA, deposits can only be taken with the Ordinary Account Savings funds of the participants, while Special Account Contributions can only be used with CPFIS-SA investments. The categories of goods approved under CPFIS-OA and CPFIS-SA for investment are also distinct.
Incorrect
For investments made under CPFIS-OA but not needed for CPFIS-SA, a CPF Investment Account is required. Under CPFIS-OA, deposits can only be taken with the Ordinary Account Savings funds of the participants, while Special Account Contributions can only be used with CPFIS-SA investments. The categories of goods approved under CPFIS-OA and CPFIS-SA for investment are also distinct.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
What are the permissible monetary thresholds for investing in the ordinary and special accounts (CPFIS-OA and CPFIS-SA)?
I. A sum over $100,000 in the special account
II. A sum of less than $2000 in an ordinary account
III. An amount over $20,000 in an ordinary account
IV. An amount over $40,000 in the special accountCorrect
Just the funds over $20,000/- will be deposited in the ordinary account and $40,000 in the special account. A participant may, however, continue to support his or her regular premium insurance policies (but not annual single premium insurance policies or regular unit trust savings plans).
Incorrect
Just the funds over $20,000/- will be deposited in the ordinary account and $40,000 in the special account. A participant may, however, continue to support his or her regular premium insurance policies (but not annual single premium insurance policies or regular unit trust savings plans).
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Which of the following functions are not carried out through the CPF Investment Account?
I. To monitor the exact circumstances in which a member’s investments by CPFIS will be exempted.
II. To enhance the settlement of the acquisitions & investment sales of a client.
III. To keep a record in the CPF Investment Account of his/her investment assets and money transfers.
IV. To know how CPFIS members handle progress, losses and dividends, etc.Correct
A CPF Investment Account is an account established with a CPFIS agent bank to promote the settlement of the investment sales and acquisitions of a member and to keep a record of its investment portfolios and deposits through its CPF Investment Account.
Incorrect
A CPF Investment Account is an account established with a CPFIS agent bank to promote the settlement of the investment sales and acquisitions of a member and to keep a record of its investment portfolios and deposits through its CPF Investment Account.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The agent banks of CPFIS are selected by the Board of CPF and are one of the 3 local banks. Which of the options below is an exclusion?
Correct
The agent banks of the CPFIS are approved by the Board of the CPF and are one of three local banks, i.e. Oversea-Chinese Banking Corporation Ltd (‘OCBC’), United Overseas Bank Ltd (‘UOB’), and DBS Bank Ltd (‘DBS’). The agent banks are selected by the CPF Board to facilitate the investment and settlement of stocks and bonds issued on the Singapore Exchange through their comprehensive branch network and services.
Incorrect
The agent banks of the CPFIS are approved by the Board of the CPF and are one of three local banks, i.e. Oversea-Chinese Banking Corporation Ltd (‘OCBC’), United Overseas Bank Ltd (‘UOB’), and DBS Bank Ltd (‘DBS’). The agent banks are selected by the CPF Board to facilitate the investment and settlement of stocks and bonds issued on the Singapore Exchange through their comprehensive branch network and services.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Which of the following is not part of the eligibility criteria to get permission for participating in the Central Provident Fund Investment Scheme (CPFIS)?
Correct
A member of the CPF who is at least 18 years old, is not an undischarged bankrupt and has more than $20,000 in his or her ordinary account (for CPFIS-OA investment) and/or more than $40,000 in his/her special account (for CPFIS-SA investment) is permitted to join in the CPFIS.
Incorrect
A member of the CPF who is at least 18 years old, is not an undischarged bankrupt and has more than $20,000 in his or her ordinary account (for CPFIS-OA investment) and/or more than $40,000 in his/her special account (for CPFIS-SA investment) is permitted to join in the CPFIS.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
How many CPF Investment Accounts could be kept by a CPF member at one particular time?
Correct
Members can hold only one CPF Investment Account at a time. To check his/her CPF account number, a participant would need to carry his/her identification card and some of his/her CPF statements to the agent bank. Via mycpf Online Facilities, he or she can view his or her statement at http://www.cpf.gov.sg using his or her SingPass.
Incorrect
Members can hold only one CPF Investment Account at a time. To check his/her CPF account number, a participant would need to carry his/her identification card and some of his/her CPF statements to the agent bank. Via mycpf Online Facilities, he or she can view his or her statement at http://www.cpf.gov.sg using his or her SingPass.