CM SIP Capital Markets – Specified Investment Products – Derivatives and Collective Investment Schemes

Correct: Recommending a yield enhanced security is the appropriate action because these products are specifically designed for investors with a neutral market view. In a sideways or stagnant market, yield enhanced securities like discount certificates allow investors to earn a return or purchase an asset at a discount by sacrificing potential upside gains that they do not expect to occur.

Incorrect: Recommending a put warrant is incorrect because put warrants are used when an investor has a bearish view and expects the market price to fall significantly. Recommending a call warrant is incorrect because call warrants are bullish instruments used when an investor expects the market price to rise. Recommending a convertible bond is also incorrect in this scenario as it is considered a bullish strategy because the bond includes an embedded call option that benefits from rising stock prices.

Takeaway: Financial products must be aligned with an investor’s specific market outlook; neutral views are best served by yield-enhanced products, while bullish and bearish views require directional instruments like call or put warrants.

Correct: Allowing the investor to apply the realized profit to the new margin requirement is the right action because mark-to-market gains from an Extended Settlement (ES) trade can be used to offset other margin requirements of the same customer. This allows for more efficient capital use by letting realized gains from offset positions fund the margin for new entries.

Incorrect: Requiring the full cash amount is wrong because the rules explicitly permit using profits from one ES trade to satisfy the margin for another. The claim that profits are only accessible after the final settlement date (LTD+3) for margin purposes is a misconception; while final settlement happens then, the gain can be applied to margins immediately. Restricting the offset to only maintenance margins is incorrect as the total required margin (maintenance plus additional) can be reduced by the gain. Waiting for central depository confirmation is not required as members may elect to recognize these gains for margin purposes earlier.

Takeaway: Realized profits from offset Extended Settlement positions can be used to satisfy margin requirements for new positions, effectively reducing the immediate cash outlay required from the investor.

Correct: Statement I is correct because firms are strictly prohibited from providing financing or credit arrangements to customers specifically to meet their margin obligations for these contracts. Statement II is correct because once the last trading day has passed and the contract is no longer active for trading, the valuation for mark-to-market purposes is determined using the closing price of the underlying security.

Incorrect: Statement III is incorrect because the value used to calculate the maintenance margin is derived from the last traded price of the underlying security in the ready market, not the price of the contract itself. Statement IV is incorrect because a trade may be initiated if the representative has a reasonable belief that the required initial margin will be deposited within two market days (T+2) of the trade date.

Takeaway: Margin requirements for extended settlement contracts must be funded by the client without firm financing, and valuations are primarily linked to the price of the underlying cash market security. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

Correct: Statement I is correct because structured products are often engineered using a zero-coupon bond to provide capital preservation while using the remaining funds to purchase options for market exposure. Statement II is correct because the product’s risk-return profile is flexible; reducing the amount allocated to the principal-protected component allows for a larger investment in the return-generating component, potentially increasing yield.

Incorrect: Statement III is incorrect because structured products are specifically designed to address needs that are not met by standardized financial instruments, making them customized rather than standardized. Statement IV is incorrect because while the principal component can be used as collateral or linked to credit default swaps in certain products, this is an optional feature and not a universal requirement for all structured products.

Takeaway: Structured products provide customized investment solutions by combining fixed-income elements for protection with derivative elements for market-linked returns, allowing for specific risk-reward profiles not available in standard instruments. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

Correct: The use of a zero-coupon fixed income instrument that grows to the full principal amount by the time the product reaches its maturity date is the right answer because this component is purchased at a discount and naturally increases in value to reach the original principal amount by the maturity date. This provides the capital preservation floor, assuming the issuer does not suffer a credit event.

Incorrect: The suggestion that a knock-out feature provides preservation is wrong because knock-out mechanisms are designed to terminate the option or limit payouts, not to guarantee the return of principal. The idea that an issuer must maintain a separate insurance reserve is incorrect because the preservation is a result of the bond’s structure and the issuer’s creditworthiness, not an external insurance policy. The claim that a high participation rate protects the principal is a misconception; the participation rate only determines how much the investor gains from the upside of the underlying asset and does not mitigate losses to the principal.

Takeaway: In a zero plus option strategy, the fixed income component ensures the return of the initial principal at maturity, while the option component provides potential for additional returns based on the performance of a reference asset.

Correct: Statement II is correct because even if a customer fails to meet a margin call by the required deadline, the brokerage firm is permitted to accept orders that reduce the customer’s overall risk and margin requirements. Statement III is correct because the exchange allows various non-cash assets, such as gold bars and specific common shares, to be used as margin collateral provided they are valued using the appropriate prescribed haircuts.

Incorrect: Statement I is incorrect because a margin call requires the customer to restore the account value to the sum of the Initial Margin and the Additional Margin (mark-to-market losses), not just the minimum Required Margin level. Statement IV is incorrect because brokerage firms have the explicit discretion to impose stricter margin requirements, higher haircut rates, or shorter payment periods than the minimum standards set by the exchange.

Takeaway: When an Extended Settlement margin call is triggered, the account must be topped up to the full initial margin level plus losses, though firms may still allow risk-reducing trades and accept various non-cash collateral types. Therefore, statements II and III are correct.

Correct: A structure combining a zero-coupon bond with a long-call option strategy is the right answer because this specific combination allows the fixed-income component to grow to the full principal value by the maturity date, while the long-call option provides the investor with potential upside from the underlying asset’s performance. This is a standard method for creating products that offer a minimum return of principal.

Incorrect: The strategy involving short-put options is wrong because short option strategies are typically employed in structured products that do not guarantee the return of principal, as they expose the investor to downside risk. The option regarding physical settlement is incorrect because products that require the delivery of the underlying asset instead of cash at maturity are not considered principal protected. The choice mentioning a conversion feature to an alternate currency is also wrong because any feature that allows for conversion into another asset type or currency inherently means the product is not principal protected.

Takeaway: Structured products achieve capital preservation by using fixed-income instruments like zero-coupon bonds or CPPI strategies, whereas strategies involving short options or physical delivery generally do not guarantee the return of principal.

Correct: Statement II is correct because licensed members are required to notify regulators immediately if a client’s margin shortfall is so large that it exceeds the firm’s own aggregate financial resources. Statement III is correct because the exchange uses monitoring thresholds on the number of open long and short positions to prevent market manipulation and cornering. Statement IV is correct because global position monitoring is a critical tool for managing settlement risk, especially as contracts approach expiry and physical delivery becomes imminent.

Incorrect: Statement I is incorrect because when a customer indicates that margins will not be received within the T+2 period, the member is prohibited from accepting risk-neutral or risk-increasing orders. In such cases, only risk-reducing activities are permitted to protect the firm and the market from further exposure.

Takeaway: For Extended Settlement contracts, trading is restricted to risk-reducing activities if margins are delayed beyond T+2, and significant margin breaches must be reported to maintain market integrity. Therefore, statements II, III and IV are correct.

Correct: The investor must provide sufficient collateral within two market days to restore the Customer Asset Value to the sum of the Initial Margin and Additional Margin. This is the standard procedure when the asset value falls below the required margin level, ensuring the clearing house is protected against price fluctuations.

Incorrect: The suggestion that the investor has three business days to restore the value to the Maintenance Margin level is wrong because the timeframe is specifically two market days and the account must be restored to the higher sum of Initial and Additional Margins. The claim that an investor must immediately liquidate the position is incorrect because the regulatory framework allows a grace period to meet the margin call before such actions are taken. The statement that only cash is accepted for mark-to-market losses is false because various forms of collateral, including gold bars and selected common stocks, are acceptable for meeting all margin requirements.

Takeaway: When a margin call is triggered for an Extended Settlement contract, the investor must top up the account to the full Initial and Additional Margin levels within two market days.

Correct: Extended Settlement (ES) Contracts are the right answer because they are structured as single stock futures that allow investors to take short positions for the duration of the contract (up to 35 days). Unlike other trading methods, ES contracts do not incur financing or borrowing costs for the duration of the contract, providing a capital-efficient way to profit from bearish market views.

Incorrect: Margin financing is wrong because it is primarily a tool for gaining leverage on long positions and does not support short selling. Contra trading is wrong because it only allows for intra-day short selling and requires the position to be closed or settled within a few days, which does not accommodate a month-long investment view. Securities Borrowing and Lending (SBL) is wrong because, while it facilitates shorting in the ready market, it involves explicit borrowing costs and reverse margin requirements that are not present in ES contracts.

Takeaway: ES contracts offer a unique regulatory and cost structure that allows for short positions of up to 35 days without the financing or borrowing fees typically associated with margin or lending products.

Correct: The statement describing a variable multiplier that is rebalanced when it falls outside a specific band is the correct answer because it is factually incorrect regarding CPPI. In a CPPI strategy, the multiplier is a constant number derived from the reciprocal of the crash size. The use of a variable multiplier is the defining characteristic of Dynamic Proportion Portfolio Insurance (DPPI), not CPPI.

Incorrect: The statement about the floor value approaching 100% of the principal at maturity is true because the floor represents the present value of the guaranteed sum, which naturally increases as time passes. The statement regarding range-bound markets is true because CPPI’s mechanical nature forces the manager to buy as assets rise and sell as they fall, which can lead to a ‘cash-out’ where the portfolio hits the floor and is moved entirely into risk-free assets. The statement about the multiplier calculation is true because the multiplier is mathematically defined as 1 divided by the expected crash size percentage.

Takeaway: While both CPPI and DPPI protect a portfolio’s floor value, CPPI is distinguished by its use of a constant multiplier, whereas DPPI employs a variable multiplier to manage asset allocation within specific bands.

Correct: Statement I is correct because the Constant Proportion Portfolio Insurance (CPPI) strategy involves a dynamic rebalancing process where funds are shifted between a risk-free asset and a risky asset based on the portfolio’s performance relative to a floor. Statement III is correct because the primary goal of this strategy is principal preservation, and managers often enhance this by paying a fee to a third-party financial institution to guarantee the principal amount at maturity.

Incorrect: Statement II is incorrect because if the portfolio value drops to the floor, the manager must allocate funds to the risk-free asset to ensure the principal can be repaid at maturity, not the risky asset. Statement IV is incorrect because CPPI is a dynamic allocation strategy that requires regular adjustments and rebalancing rather than a fixed, unchanging allocation throughout the investment period.

Takeaway: CPPI is a dynamic protection strategy that manages downside risk by shifting assets into risk-free instruments as the portfolio value approaches a predetermined floor to ensure principal preservation. Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

Correct: The investor receives the base yield plus a pro-rated portion of the variable yield based only on the days the index remained within the specified range is the right answer because the yield formula (0.50% + [4.00% x n/N]) is designed to accumulate interest daily. The variable component is calculated by counting the specific number of days the underlying index stays within the accrual and knock-out barriers, meaning the investor still earns interest for the time the index was within the range.

Incorrect: The suggestion that the investor only receives the base yield of 0.50% is wrong because the variable yield is not an all-or-nothing feature; it accumulates for every day the condition is met. The claim that the investor receives the maximum yield of 4.50% is wrong because that return is only possible if the index stays within the range for the entire 250-day period. The idea that a penalty fee is deducted for days outside the range is wrong because the product simply stops accruing the variable interest for those days rather than applying a penalty.

Takeaway: In range-accrual structured products, the final return is determined by the proportion of time the underlying asset remains within the specified price boundaries during the observation period.

Correct: Statement I is correct because structured products typically utilize a trust arrangement where an independent trustee is appointed to hold the underlying assets, providing security for investors. Statement II is correct because financial auditors are engaged to verify that the financial statements are accurate and to ensure that the complex valuation of the product and its derivatives is fair. Statement IV is correct because products traded on an exchange must adhere to specific rules, which include the mandatory provision of semi-annual and annual reports to keep investors informed.

Incorrect: Statement III is incorrect because there is a specific restriction that only qualified representatives are permitted to provide advice on structured products. It is not a general permission granted to all licensed representatives; those who are not specifically qualified can only facilitate trades for investors who already possess the necessary knowledge and experience to understand the risks.

Takeaway: The integrity of structured products is maintained through independent oversight by trustees and auditors, while investor protection is reinforced by restricting advisory activities to specifically qualified representatives. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.

Correct: The statement claiming that principal preservation is identical to a principal guarantee is false. Principal preservation relies on the issuer investing a portion of the funds into fixed-income securities, such as zero-coupon bonds, to return the principal at maturity. This is not a guarantee because the underlying security could default. A principal guarantee, however, uses specific collateral or insurance and is typically more expensive for the investor.

Incorrect: The statement regarding holding to maturity is true because structured products are designed to reach their full value at the end of the term, and early exits often result in losses. The statement about liquidity is true because these products are highly customized and lack a robust secondary market, making them difficult to sell. The statement about risk-return allocation is true because the ratio between the principal-protecting component and the return-generating component determines the product’s overall risk level.

Takeaway: Principal preservation is distinct from a principal guarantee; preservation depends on the creditworthiness of underlying bonds, while a guarantee involves additional costs for collateral or insurance protection.

Correct: The explanation that interest accumulation stops permanently is correct because, in a Hang Seng Index (HSI) Daily Range Accrual Note, a knock-out event occurs if the index trades at or above the knock-out barrier. Once this event is triggered, the accrual of coupons stops for the remainder of the investment period, and the investor is entitled to the principal plus only the interest earned on the days the index was within the valid range.

Incorrect: The option suggesting a loss of principal is wrong because these structured notes are typically designed for principal preservation, meaning the initial investment is returned regardless of the knock-out event. The option regarding temporary suspension is incorrect because the knock-out mechanism is permanent; once the barrier is breached, accrual does not resume even if the index returns to the range. The option regarding a guaranteed minimum payment of half the yield is wrong because the payout is strictly calculated based on the actual number of days the index stayed within the range before the knock-out occurred.

Takeaway: A knock-out event in a range accrual note permanently terminates the interest-earning potential of the product, though the investor’s principal remains protected and is returned alongside any interest accrued prior to the event.

Correct: Statement I is correct because a futures pack allows a trader to execute four consecutive delivery months as a single transaction, which effectively eliminates the risk of partial fills or “legging risk.” Statement III is correct because the pricing convention for both packs and bundles is based on the simple average net change in value of all the individual contracts within the group since the previous day’s settlement. Statement IV is correct because the Mutual Offset System between SGX and CME specifically includes the Nikkei 225 Index Futures as an eligible product for real-time position allocation between the two exchanges.

Incorrect: Statement II is incorrect because the regulatory framework for these products specifies that bundles are only available for periods of 2, 3, or 5 years. A sequence of quarterly contracts covering only one year is technically defined as a pack, and therefore a “1-year bundle” does not exist in this market context.

Takeaway: Packs and bundles allow for the efficient execution of multiple futures contracts along the yield curve in a single transaction, while the Mutual Offset System facilitates cross-border liquidity for specific eligible products. Therefore, statements I, III and IV are correct.

Correct: Range Accrual Notes (RANs) are generally structured such that the principal can be redeemed at maturity, making them yield-enhancement products without complex features that put the principal at high risk. In contrast, a First-to-Default Credit Linked Note (CLN) involves the investor effectively selling credit protection, which puts the invested principal at higher risk because a default by any single company in the basket requires the principal to be used to pay off creditors.

Incorrect: The statement that RANs are more complex is incorrect because they are actually considered easier to understand than many other structured notes as they typically rely on a single underlying reference. The claim regarding correlation is wrong because lower correlation between companies in a CLN basket increases the number of independent risk factors, which necessitates a higher yield, not a lower one. The suggestion that RANs track multiple references is false; they are characterized by using a single underlying reference, unlike more complex notes that may track several.

Takeaway: The fundamental distinction between these products lies in principal exposure; RANs typically protect the principal while offering variable coupons, whereas First-to-Default CLNs put the entire principal at risk in exchange for higher yields.

Correct: Structured deposits require the bank to repay the full principal at maturity, whereas structured notes issued via an SPV limit the investor’s claim to the specific assets held by that separate entity. In Singapore, the distinguishing feature of a structured deposit is the requirement for full principal repayment at maturity, while an SPV is a separate legal entity where noteholders have no recourse to the bank that set it up.

Incorrect: The statement regarding deposit insurance is wrong because structured deposits are specifically excluded from the Deposit Insurance Scheme. The claim that SPV notes allow recourse to the parent bank is wrong because SPV assets and liabilities are off-balance sheet and legally separate from the bank. The claim that structured deposits are debentures is wrong because they are classified as deposits under the Banking Act, and structured notes are generally subject to prospectus requirements unless an exemption for specific investor classes applies.

Takeaway: Structured deposits guarantee principal at maturity but are not covered by deposit insurance, while SPV-issued notes isolate credit risk to the SPV’s own assets without recourse to the sponsoring bank.

Correct: Statement I is correct because structured notes are legally classified as debt instruments or debentures and must comply with standard disclosure rules unless an exemption for specific investor classes applies. Statement II is correct because it accurately reflects the financial thresholds for an individual to be classified as an accredited investor under the current regulatory framework.

Incorrect: Statement III is incorrect because while the performance of the note is linked to an underlying asset, the investor generally holds a claim against the issuer rather than the underlying assets themselves. Statement IV is incorrect because the net asset threshold for a corporation to qualify as an accredited investor is ten million dollars, not five million dollars.

Takeaway: Structured notes are debentures that require a prospectus for retail offerings, and specific wealth or income thresholds must be met for an investor to be classified as accredited. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

Correct: Statement I is correct because the knock-out barrier acts as a mandatory termination trigger, which prevents the investor from continuing to purchase shares at a discount if the market price rises too high. Statement II is correct because a 1X2 gearing ratio mandates that the investor must buy double the base quantity of shares whenever the market price is lower than the strike price.

Incorrect: Statement III is incorrect because an investor in an accumulator does not have the rights of a shareholder, such as receiving dividends, until the shares are actually delivered at settlement. Statement IV is incorrect because the investor’s liability is not limited to the margin; they must fulfill the purchase obligation for the entire tenor, which can result in a loss of the full strike price for all shares.

Takeaway: Investors in geared accumulators face magnified losses if the share price falls, while their profit potential is cut short if the price hits the knock-out level. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

Correct: The issuer of a Multi-Callable Range Accrual Note holds a Bermudan swaption, which they will likely exercise if the implied forward rates rise above the strike fixed rate. This allows the issuer to terminate the note, which protects them from paying higher rates but leaves the investor with the challenge of reinvesting their capital at current market rates, known as reinvestment risk.

Incorrect: The suggestion that an issuer calls the note because the index stays within the range is wrong because the call option is specifically linked to interest rate movements via the swaption, not just the accrual condition. Decreased volatility might change option pricing but is not the specific trigger for exercise mentioned in the rules. A swap rate falling below a floor is a characteristic of other structured products and does not describe the exercise mechanism of a Bermudan swaption in a RAN.

Takeaway: Multi-Callable Range Accrual Notes give issuers the right to terminate the investment when forward rates exceed the strike rate, subjecting investors to reinvestment risk.

Correct: Explaining that she will receive no interest for that period but her full principal remains protected at maturity is the right answer because Range Accrual Notes are yield enhancement structures where the coupon is only earned for days the reference index stays within a specific range. While the interest payout can be zero if the index stays outside the range, the principal sum is typically preserved at maturity, subject to the credit risk of the issuer.

Incorrect: The option regarding principal deduction is wrong because Range Accrual Notes are designed to return the full principal at maturity; the risk is primarily focused on the interest/yield component. The option regarding a guaranteed minimum floor interest rate is wrong because the standard terms of these notes specify that the payout is zero for any day the index closes outside the predefined range. The option regarding an automatic extension of the maturity date is wrong because the term of a structured note is fixed at the time of issuance and does not change based on the performance of the underlying index.

Takeaway: Range Accrual Notes provide potential for higher interest when an index stays within a range, but investors face the risk of receiving no interest if the index is volatile, even though their principal is generally preserved.

Correct: Purchasing twice the predefined quantity of shares at the strike price is the right answer because in a ‘1X2 gear’ accumulator, the investor is contractually obligated to buy double the base amount of shares whenever the market price is below the strike price. This obligation persists at the fixed strike price regardless of how far the market price falls, which represents the primary risk of the product.

Incorrect: The suggestion that the investor buys a single quantity at the market price is wrong because the strike price is fixed at the start and the gearing mechanism specifically doubles the purchase requirement during price drops. The idea that the investor can terminate the agreement when the price falls is wrong because termination, or a ‘knock-out,’ is typically only triggered when the price rises to the barrier level, not when it falls. The claim that the investor buys at the market price is wrong because the investor is legally bound to the strike price defined in the contract, which is higher than the current market value in this scenario.

Takeaway: Geared accumulators amplify downside risk by requiring investors to purchase multiple quantities of a declining asset at a fixed strike price that is higher than the current market value.

Correct: The product is classified as a complex product because its payout structure involves embedded derivatives and conditional triggers linked to multiple indices. The presence of a Mandatory Call Event (knock-out trigger) and a formula-based Outperformance Payout means the investment’s return is not a simple linear function of the underlying assets, making it difficult for a retail investor to understand the risks and rewards without specialized knowledge.

Incorrect: The claim that capital protection makes a product non-complex is wrong because complexity is determined by the structural features and the difficulty in assessing the risk-reward profile, not just the presence of a principal guarantee. The idea that being a collective investment scheme with coupon payments makes it non-complex is incorrect because the variable coupons are contingent on a specific knock-out event, which adds structural complexity. The suggestion that complexity is based on exposure to international or commodity indices is false; complexity is defined by the derivative-linked mechanics and the interaction between the underlying components.

Takeaway: Financial products featuring embedded derivatives, conditional payout triggers, or complex formulas are classified as complex products, necessitating enhanced suitability assessments to protect retail investors.

Correct: The investor is exposed to the downside risk of the single lowest-performing security in the basket, even if the other two securities remain above their strike prices is the right answer because the return of a ‘worst of’ ELN is determined by the performance of the single worst-performing underlying asset in the basket. This structure is riskier than a standard ELN because a decline in any one of the multiple stocks can trigger a loss or physical delivery, which is why these products offer higher yields or deeper discounts.

Incorrect: The statement regarding average percentage performance is wrong because ‘worst of’ notes do not use an average; they focus exclusively on the single weakest link in the basket. The claim that all three securities must fall below their strike prices is wrong because the downside payoff is triggered if only the worst-performing asset falls below its strike, regardless of the others. The idea that the note provides protection based on the total basket value is wrong because it ignores the specific risk that the investor is exposed to the individual decline of the worst performer.

Takeaway: A ‘worst of’ ELN offers higher yields than a standard ELN because the investor assumes the downside risk of the poorest performing asset in a basket, even if all other assets in that basket perform well.

Correct: Statement II is correct because the fund’s specifications guarantee a fixed coupon of 6.38% at the end of the first year, which is independent of the performance of the underlying indices. Statement III is correct because the product includes a capital preservation feature that ensures 100% of the initial investment is returned to the investor at maturity if the product has not been terminated early.

Incorrect: Statement I is incorrect because the auto-redemption (knock-out) feature is triggered if the closing level of any of the indices is below 75% of its initial level, rather than staying above it. Statement IV is incorrect because the final payout is calculated using the arithmetic weighted average performance of all basket components (equity, bonds, and commodities) rather than the performance of the single best-performing index.

Takeaway: When analyzing structured funds, it is vital to distinguish between fixed initial returns and formula-based subsequent returns, as well as understanding the specific triggers for early redemption features. Therefore, statements II and III are correct.

Correct: Receiving a debt obligation of the reference entity is the right answer because physical settlement requires the issuer to deliver the actual defaulted bond to the investor. This occurs because the Credit Linked Note acts as collateral for credit insurance, and upon default, the investor takes over the distressed debt obligation.

Incorrect: The option about receiving a cash payment is wrong because it describes cash settlement, where the loss is calculated as the difference between par and market value and paid in cash. The option about receiving ordinary shares is wrong because that is the mechanism for an Equity Linked Note (ELN) when the underlying share price falls below the strike price. The option about receiving the full principal is wrong because a credit event in a Credit Linked Note specifically triggers a loss of principal to settle the credit insurance contract.

Takeaway: In a physically settled Credit Linked Note, a credit event results in the investor receiving the defaulted bond, exposing them to the market value of the distressed debt.

Correct: Statement I is correct because the auto-redemption feature is triggered if the Nikkei 225’s performance meets or exceeds the S&P 500’s performance at the specified observation dates starting one year after inception. Statement II is correct because the product structure includes a capital preservation feature that ensures a minimum payout of 100% of the principal at maturity, regardless of the performance of the underlying indices.

Incorrect: Statement III is incorrect because while the fund is denominated in Singapore Dollars, the underlying assets are in foreign currencies like the US Dollar and Yen, meaning exchange rate volatility still impacts the fund’s value and returns. Statement IV is incorrect because the maximum payout of 125.5% is specifically designated for the maturity date if no early redemption occurs; early redemption prices are fixed at lower levels, such as 108.5% at the one-year mark.

Takeaway: Auto-redeemable structured funds provide capital protection and early exit potential based on relative index performance, but investors remain exposed to currency, liquidity, and counterparty risks. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.

Correct: A Mandatory Call Event, also known as a Knock-Out Event, is triggered if any single index within the basket falls below 75% of its initial level on a designated observation date. This mechanism results in the early redemption of the fund and the return of the initial capital to the investor.

Incorrect: The suggestion that the weighted average return must fall below 75% is incorrect because the knock-out trigger is based on the performance of individual components, not the collective average. The statement that all four indices must decline simultaneously is wrong because the breach of the threshold by just one index is sufficient to trigger the event. The claim regarding the 10% hurdle rate is incorrect because the hurdle rate is a benchmark used to calculate outperformance payouts at maturity, rather than a trigger for early redemption.

Takeaway: In basket-linked structured products, a Mandatory Call Event is typically activated when the performance of the single weakest component hits a specific downward threshold, regardless of the other components’ performance.