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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following defines the steps that constitute the complaints procedure relating to the breaches of policies established in this guide?
I. If the management of a Market Participant believes that another Market Participant it has dealt with has breached the letter or spirit of this Guide, it should escalate appropriately and seek to settle the matter amicably with the other party
II. Either party may bring the matter to the attention of the Secretary, SFEMC, with notification to the other party
III. Market Participants should also refer to the principles in Principle 7 of the Global Code
IV. If a Market Participant observes serious misconduct or material breaches of this Guide, it should take matters into its own hands and persistently confront the other party.Correct
In the event that management of a market participant has obtained evidential matter to believe that another market participant it has come into interaction with has breached the guide, it must confront the counterparty in order to settle the matters at hand amicably and to ultimately seek a resolution. If this is deemed to be not possible, either party is given the opportunity to bring the matter to the attention of the secretary, SFEMC upon properly notifying the counterparty. It is also expected of market participants to refer to the principles in Principle 7 of the Global Code in case of any doubts with regards to the breach.
Incorrect
In the event that management of a market participant has obtained evidential matter to believe that another market participant it has come into interaction with has breached the guide, it must confront the counterparty in order to settle the matters at hand amicably and to ultimately seek a resolution. If this is deemed to be not possible, either party is given the opportunity to bring the matter to the attention of the secretary, SFEMC upon properly notifying the counterparty. It is also expected of market participants to refer to the principles in Principle 7 of the Global Code in case of any doubts with regards to the breach.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Why are intra-ray deal checks strongly recommended?
Correct
The guidance highly encourages the practice of intra-ray deal checks due to the fact that it paves way for minimizing the number and size of difference, with regards to dealings through voice brokers or for other deals relating to foreign counterparties. It also encourages faster movement of markets particularly in foreign exchange and in dealing with other products characterized by short settlement periods.
Incorrect
The guidance highly encourages the practice of intra-ray deal checks due to the fact that it paves way for minimizing the number and size of difference, with regards to dealings through voice brokers or for other deals relating to foreign counterparties. It also encourages faster movement of markets particularly in foreign exchange and in dealing with other products characterized by short settlement periods.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following is not in accordance with the jurisdictional approach of Sweden to regulating and supervising VA activities and VASPs?
Correct
In Sweden, the Financial Supervisory Authority permitted the consideration of bitcoin and ethereum as a mode of exchange since 2013, and it has correspondingly become obliged to undergo licensure. This said imposition is not to be deemed an explicit AML/CFT regulation of VA exchange services but should be viewed as an implicit recognition that they should be regulated.
Incorrect
In Sweden, the Financial Supervisory Authority permitted the consideration of bitcoin and ethereum as a mode of exchange since 2013, and it has correspondingly become obliged to undergo licensure. This said imposition is not to be deemed an explicit AML/CFT regulation of VA exchange services but should be viewed as an implicit recognition that they should be regulated.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following defines the arbitration procedure developed under The Singapore Guide to Conduct and Market Practices for the Wholesale Financial Markets?
I. Where disputes arise, it is essential that the Market Participants involved should be cautious and be hesitant in assuming any responsibility for resolving or settling the matter.
II. The SFEMC provides a forum for resolution of any dispute between Market Participants on dealing ethics or current market practices in relation to specific transactions in the wholesale financial markets, which should be the first reference of the market participants in their attempt to resolve the matter.
III. All parties must agree to the SFEMC’s role and accept its decision as full and final settlement of the dispute.
IV. Requests for arbitration should be addressed to the Secretary, SFEMC. A request should be concise but needs to contain all necessary information to facilitate the SFEMC’s actions.Correct
With regards to the arbitration procedure, the Singapore Guide to Conduct and Market Practices for the Wholesale Financial Markets lays out the means by which disputes must be managed. It is important that the parties agree to the SFEMC’s role and adhere to the decision as the final settlement of dispute. It is also expected that requests for arbitration are addressed to secretary, SFEMC. This request must be concise but should embody all necessary information to govern the actions of the SFEMC.
Incorrect
With regards to the arbitration procedure, the Singapore Guide to Conduct and Market Practices for the Wholesale Financial Markets lays out the means by which disputes must be managed. It is important that the parties agree to the SFEMC’s role and adhere to the decision as the final settlement of dispute. It is also expected that requests for arbitration are addressed to secretary, SFEMC. This request must be concise but should embody all necessary information to govern the actions of the SFEMC.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which of the following are false with regards to the requirements for surveyed benchmarks?
Correct
Provision or exchange of general market information is permitted. It must, however, be ascertained that substantial policies are established to govern the process of reducing actual or forecasted conflicts in case individuals who are given responsibility for benchmark contributions have the tendency to exact opinions or publish market commentary with regards to the benchmarks that they govern.
Incorrect
Provision or exchange of general market information is permitted. It must, however, be ascertained that substantial policies are established to govern the process of reducing actual or forecasted conflicts in case individuals who are given responsibility for benchmark contributions have the tendency to exact opinions or publish market commentary with regards to the benchmarks that they govern.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Which of the following does not reflect the purposes served by the guidance for the risk-based approach to virtual assets and virtual asset service providers?
Correct
The Guidance provides clarity on how the risk-based approach is applied in accordance with the AML/CFT measures for VAs, and gives assistance to the identification of entities that conduct activities or operations relating to VA. The FATF has regarded that despite the potential governments have due to their substantial range of regulatory responses to VAs and as well as on VASPs, many jurisdictions still lack the ability to establish stable and effective AML/CFT frameworks that are catered towards the mitigation of ML/TF risks associated with VA activities due to the fact that VA activities have developed globally and have increasingly established operations across jurisdictions.
Incorrect
The Guidance provides clarity on how the risk-based approach is applied in accordance with the AML/CFT measures for VAs, and gives assistance to the identification of entities that conduct activities or operations relating to VA. The FATF has regarded that despite the potential governments have due to their substantial range of regulatory responses to VAs and as well as on VASPs, many jurisdictions still lack the ability to establish stable and effective AML/CFT frameworks that are catered towards the mitigation of ML/TF risks associated with VA activities due to the fact that VA activities have developed globally and have increasingly established operations across jurisdictions.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following reflects how error deals must be dealt with according to the Singapore Guide to Conduct and Market Practices for the Wholesale Financial Markets?
I. Trades, once executed, may trigger further trades and the subsequent cancellation of the trigger may cause confusion and loss to other Market Participants who have acted in good faith.
II. Trades may be cancelled on the basis that the price traded is not representative of the prevailing market price.
III. In case of an error in the notional value or number of contracts traded, the trade may immediately be subject to cancellation.
IV. A Market Participant that is seeking to have a trade cancelled on the basis that the price traded is not representative of the prevailing market price should notify its counterparty as soon as possibleCorrect
An executed trade is influential in terms of subsequent cancellations. Trade may only be permitted cancellation when the price traded is not representative of the prevailing market price. Trades whose errors mainly root from the notional value or the number of contracts traded may not ordinarily be subjected to cancellation unless circumstances deem otherwise. It is relevant to ascertain that a market participant seeking to have a trade canceled due to the fact that the price traded does not reflect the prevailing market price should give notice to its counterparty as soon as possible. Trades will only ever be subject to cancellation if both parties agree to the cancellation.
Incorrect
An executed trade is influential in terms of subsequent cancellations. Trade may only be permitted cancellation when the price traded is not representative of the prevailing market price. Trades whose errors mainly root from the notional value or the number of contracts traded may not ordinarily be subjected to cancellation unless circumstances deem otherwise. It is relevant to ascertain that a market participant seeking to have a trade canceled due to the fact that the price traded does not reflect the prevailing market price should give notice to its counterparty as soon as possible. Trades will only ever be subject to cancellation if both parties agree to the cancellation.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following reflects the best practice of audit/assurance?
Correct
An audit is often enforced to fulfill the purpose of providing reasonable assurance that a given representation is free from material misstatement, that methods embody effectiveness and efficiency, or that a procedure is in compliance with a specified regulatory framework. In the case of the benchmark rate setting process, an independent examination is deemed a relevant practice to ensure the highest potential of the process by minimizing the risks that may be associated with it.
Incorrect
An audit is often enforced to fulfill the purpose of providing reasonable assurance that a given representation is free from material misstatement, that methods embody effectiveness and efficiency, or that a procedure is in compliance with a specified regulatory framework. In the case of the benchmark rate setting process, an independent examination is deemed a relevant practice to ensure the highest potential of the process by minimizing the risks that may be associated with it.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following best represent developments in the virtual asset ecosystem?
Correct
The 2015 VC guidelines highlight the areas where virtual currency activities coincide with and provide a gateway to and from the traditional regulated financial system, mainly pointing out convertible virtual currency exchangers. The virtual asset sphere has correspondingly evolved in order to cover a range of new products and services, business models, and activities and interactions, including virtual-to-virtual asset transactions. The heightened utilization of virtual-to-virtual layering schemes that attempt to further obfuscate transactions in a comparatively easy, cheap, and secure manner have emerged.
Incorrect
The 2015 VC guidelines highlight the areas where virtual currency activities coincide with and provide a gateway to and from the traditional regulated financial system, mainly pointing out convertible virtual currency exchangers. The virtual asset sphere has correspondingly evolved in order to cover a range of new products and services, business models, and activities and interactions, including virtual-to-virtual asset transactions. The heightened utilization of virtual-to-virtual layering schemes that attempt to further obfuscate transactions in a comparatively easy, cheap, and secure manner have emerged.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following govern the confirmation procedures in accordance with the back office practices of the Singapore Guide to Conduct and Market Practices for the Wholesale Financial Markets?
I. All transactions should be confirmed in writing (this includes confirmation by electronic means) by both parties and should be addressed to the back office or settlements department of the counterparty.
II. The format and content of a confirmation will vary according to the product dealt in and reference should be made to any applicable standard terms and conditions published to ascertain the correct content and format for any particular product
III. Brokers should confirm all transactions in writing to both counterparties immediately. Where after a transaction, a Broker fails to send a confirmation and the principal misses out the deal entirely, liability for any financial losses should be borne by the broker.
IV. If the counterparty confirmation is considered incorrect, the counterparty should immediately be informed in writing. A new confirmation (or written agreement to a correction) should be requested from and be provided by the counterparty whose original confirmation was incorrect.Correct
The back office shall be able to strengthen risk control for a proper functioning financial market. Confirmation procedures must be made in writing to embody the adherence of both parties and should be addressed to the back office or settlements department of the counterparty. However, the format and content will vary in accordance to the product dealt and it is important to refer to any applicable standard terms and conditions that were published in order to ensure the embodiment of accurate content and format for a certain product. If the confirmation made by the counterparty is deemed incorrect, the counterparty must immediately give notice of this fact in writing. Accordingly, a new confirmation or a written agreement of correction must be requested from and be given by the counterparty whose original confirmation was incorrect.
Incorrect
The back office shall be able to strengthen risk control for a proper functioning financial market. Confirmation procedures must be made in writing to embody the adherence of both parties and should be addressed to the back office or settlements department of the counterparty. However, the format and content will vary in accordance to the product dealt and it is important to refer to any applicable standard terms and conditions that were published in order to ensure the embodiment of accurate content and format for a certain product. If the confirmation made by the counterparty is deemed incorrect, the counterparty must immediately give notice of this fact in writing. Accordingly, a new confirmation or a written agreement of correction must be requested from and be given by the counterparty whose original confirmation was incorrect.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following is/are true with regards to the nature of the Singapore Guide to Conduct and Market Practices for the Wholesale Financial Markets and adherence?
Correct
The guide was not formulated to embody a prescriptive nature. Its applicability was set to adhere to the principle of proportionality to govern a market participant and the steps they carry out. However, they are only set to provide guidance on good conduct and market practices, and not to impose legal or regulatory obligations on market participants. This, although, does not excuse them from being bound to adhere to the provisions listed under this guidance.
Incorrect
The guide was not formulated to embody a prescriptive nature. Its applicability was set to adhere to the principle of proportionality to govern a market participant and the steps they carry out. However, they are only set to provide guidance on good conduct and market practices, and not to impose legal or regulatory obligations on market participants. This, although, does not excuse them from being bound to adhere to the provisions listed under this guidance.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following circumstances prompts the inclusion of derivatives in the determination of short sell orders or short positions?
Correct
A short sell order is identified where the seller does not possess an interest in the product at the time the order is made. From the point they are exercised and obligations are created to deliver or receive the physical delivery of the specified capital markets products, they become included among the considerations in the determination of short sell orders or short positions.
Incorrect
A short sell order is identified where the seller does not possess an interest in the product at the time the order is made. From the point they are exercised and obligations are created to deliver or receive the physical delivery of the specified capital markets products, they become included among the considerations in the determination of short sell orders or short positions.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following reflect the guidance on the settlement of late payments?
I. Where difference in payment arises because of errors in the payment of funds, Market Participants are reminded that they should not benefit from undue enrichment by retaining the funds.
II. Where a Market Participant suffers penalties for overdrawing an account arising from late payment of funds, it is not entitled to seek reimbursement from the party responsible for the late payment.
III. Late payments for transactions entered into on a trading facility or platform or which have been registered with a central counterparty (“CCP”) for clearing should be settled in accordance with the rules of the trading facility or platform or CCP.
IV. In the case of over-the-counter transactions in Singapore Dollars, late payments between banks in Singapore should be settled in accordance with Section K2 of the ABS Bye-laws and Regulations.Correct
When there are discrepancies in the payment of funds due to errors, market participants must firmly adhere to the basic principles and must not derive benefit from undue enrichment through the retention of funds. In case that the market participant suffers penalties due to the overdrawing of an account caused by late payment of funds, the participant possesses the right to seek reimbursement from the party who is responsible for late payment. Late payments of over-the-counter transactions in Singapore Dollars between banks, on the other hand, should be settled in accordance with Section K2 of the ABS by-laws and regulations.
Incorrect
When there are discrepancies in the payment of funds due to errors, market participants must firmly adhere to the basic principles and must not derive benefit from undue enrichment through the retention of funds. In case that the market participant suffers penalties due to the overdrawing of an account caused by late payment of funds, the participant possesses the right to seek reimbursement from the party who is responsible for late payment. Late payments of over-the-counter transactions in Singapore Dollars between banks, on the other hand, should be settled in accordance with Section K2 of the ABS by-laws and regulations.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following are true regarding electronic trading activities?
I. It is important adopt prudent risk management frameworks prior to engaging in electronic trading activities
II. Transactions executed should be managed in accordance with the provisions of the individual Provider’s terms and conditions
III. Market Participants should ensure that systems established are robust and have adequate controls and security features
IV. In case of doubt, other provisions of this Guide should not be applied to transactions and business conducted via electronic trading systemsCorrect
Electronic trading activities shall only be entered into following the establishment of prudent risk management frameworks. This must be substantial in terms of its controls and security features and should ensure a solid foundation upon which risks may be minimized. Activities carried out on electronic trading platforms shall be executed in compliance with the provisions set by the individual provider’s terms and conditions.
Incorrect
Electronic trading activities shall only be entered into following the establishment of prudent risk management frameworks. This must be substantial in terms of its controls and security features and should ensure a solid foundation upon which risks may be minimized. Activities carried out on electronic trading platforms shall be executed in compliance with the provisions set by the individual provider’s terms and conditions.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following does not define a function of the guidance for a risk-based approach to virtual assets and virtual asset service providers?
Correct
With regards to the supervision, emphasis is provided by the guidance with regards to the fact that only competent authorities can act as VASP supervisory or monitoring bodies, and not self-regulatory bodies. Competent authorities are tasked to conduct risk-based supervision or monitoring, with adequate powers; such as the ability to perform inspections, require the production of information and impose sanctions. Given the cross-border nature of VASPs’ activities and provision of services, a high regard is placed on the international co-operation between supervisors.
Incorrect
With regards to the supervision, emphasis is provided by the guidance with regards to the fact that only competent authorities can act as VASP supervisory or monitoring bodies, and not self-regulatory bodies. Competent authorities are tasked to conduct risk-based supervision or monitoring, with adequate powers; such as the ability to perform inspections, require the production of information and impose sanctions. Given the cross-border nature of VASPs’ activities and provision of services, a high regard is placed on the international co-operation between supervisors.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the following relates to the nature of the investors or participants, or proposed investors or participants, who may use or have an interest in the market to be operated by the corporation as a factor to consider in determining whether the MAS is systemically important?
Correct
The regulatory regime for markets indicates that the establishment and operation of markets in Singapore requires the acquisition of approval as an approved exchange, the recognition as a recognized market operator, or the exemption as an exempted market operator by the MAS. With regards to the nature of the investors or participants, or proposed investors or participants, who may use or have an interest in the market to be operated by the corporation, the MAS is tasked to identify the the level of sophistication of the investors or participants, the systemic importance of the participants and the impact of any failure of the market on the investors or participants and the broader financial sector.
Incorrect
The regulatory regime for markets indicates that the establishment and operation of markets in Singapore requires the acquisition of approval as an approved exchange, the recognition as a recognized market operator, or the exemption as an exempted market operator by the MAS. With regards to the nature of the investors or participants, or proposed investors or participants, who may use or have an interest in the market to be operated by the corporation, the MAS is tasked to identify the the level of sophistication of the investors or participants, the systemic importance of the participants and the impact of any failure of the market on the investors or participants and the broader financial sector.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following relates to the nature of the securities or futures contracts traded, or to be traded, on the market to be operated by the corporation as a factor to consider in determining whether the MAS is systemically important?
Correct
As provided by Sections 6 and 14 of the SFA, the regulatory regime for markets highlights the necessity of an individual who wishes to establish or operate a market in Singapore to obtain approval, recognition or exemption from the MAS in order to form part of the regulated markets. With regards to the nature of the securities or futures contracts traded, or to be traded, on the market to be operated by the corporation, the MAS examines the number of classes of securities or futures contracts traded on the market to determine the systemic importance of the market.
Incorrect
As provided by Sections 6 and 14 of the SFA, the regulatory regime for markets highlights the necessity of an individual who wishes to establish or operate a market in Singapore to obtain approval, recognition or exemption from the MAS in order to form part of the regulated markets. With regards to the nature of the securities or futures contracts traded, or to be traded, on the market to be operated by the corporation, the MAS examines the number of classes of securities or futures contracts traded on the market to determine the systemic importance of the market.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following are true with regards to the auditor’s duty to report irregularities to Authority?
I. The written report must contain any matter that, in the auditor’s opinion, adversely affects or may adversely affect the financial position of the approved exchange to a material extent
II. The written report must contain any matter that, in the auditor’s opinion, constitutes or may constitute a breach of any provision of this Act or an offence involving fraud or dishonesty
III. Subsection II dictates that an auditor of an approved exchange is liable to any action for defamation at the suit of any person in respect of any statement made in the auditor’s report
IV. An auditor may be additionally obliged to to enlarge, extend or alter the scope of the audit of the business and affairs of the approved exchangeCorrect
It is first and foremost expected of the auditor that he or she immediately gives notice to authority of any matter of interest or any irregularities that may arise throughout the course of the audit engagement. The form of the report must be in writing and must embody any matter that, in the auditor’s opinion, may materially affect the financial position of the approved exchange. It must also include any information that may be indicative of a breach of any provision in the guide or any matter that may constitute an offense involving fraud or dishonesty. The Authority may give additional obligations which may include the duty to to enlarge, extend or alter the scope of the audit of the business and affairs of the approved exchange.
Incorrect
It is first and foremost expected of the auditor that he or she immediately gives notice to authority of any matter of interest or any irregularities that may arise throughout the course of the audit engagement. The form of the report must be in writing and must embody any matter that, in the auditor’s opinion, may materially affect the financial position of the approved exchange. It must also include any information that may be indicative of a breach of any provision in the guide or any matter that may constitute an offense involving fraud or dishonesty. The Authority may give additional obligations which may include the duty to to enlarge, extend or alter the scope of the audit of the business and affairs of the approved exchange.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following are false with regards to the Treatment of Virtual Assets: Interpreting the Funds- or Value-Based Terms?
Correct
It is required of countries to establish measures, in line with a risk-based approach, that is inclined towards the protection of non-profit organizations from terrorist financing abuse, as laid out in Recommendation 8, including when the clandestine diversion of funds to terrorist organizations involves VAs. They are also expected to embody a range of effective, proportionate, and dissuasive sanctions in the event that obligated entities manifest a failure to comply with AML/CFT requirements.
Incorrect
It is required of countries to establish measures, in line with a risk-based approach, that is inclined towards the protection of non-profit organizations from terrorist financing abuse, as laid out in Recommendation 8, including when the clandestine diversion of funds to terrorist organizations involves VAs. They are also expected to embody a range of effective, proportionate, and dissuasive sanctions in the event that obligated entities manifest a failure to comply with AML/CFT requirements.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Which of the following is false in relation to the guidance on the control of substantial shareholding in approved exchange?
Correct
A person may not be an 12% or 20% controller of an approved exchange in the absence of a verdict from the authority with regards to the matter. This implies that they are people who, alone, or together with other associates hold less than 12%/20% shares in the approved exchanges and are in the position to control not less than 12%/20% of the votes in the approved exchange.
Incorrect
A person may not be an 12% or 20% controller of an approved exchange in the absence of a verdict from the authority with regards to the matter. This implies that they are people who, alone, or together with other associates hold less than 12%/20% shares in the approved exchanges and are in the position to control not less than 12%/20% of the votes in the approved exchange.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
To which of the following is the obligation to maintain confidentiality applicable?
I. A recognized market operator and its officers and employees must maintain, and aid in maintaining, the confidentiality of all user information that comes to the knowledge of the recognized market operator or any of its officers or employees
II. A recognized market operator and its officers and employees must maintain, and aid in maintaining, the confidentiality of all user information that is in the possession of the recognized market operator or any of its officers or employees
III. The obligation includes the disclosure of user information for such purposes, or in such circumstances, as the Authority may prescribe by regulations made under section 44
IV. The obligation is applicable to any disclosure of user information which is authorized by the Authority to be disclosed or furnishedCorrect
Registered market operators are required to adhere to a list of common obligations which includes confidentiality. All information that is brought to the knowledge of the RMO, its officers and employees, should be governed in the same manner. However, this does not apply to the disclosure of user information for purposes that the authority may prescribe in accordance with section 44. It is likewise inapplicable in cases wherein the authority permits the disclosure or furnishing of the information.
Incorrect
Registered market operators are required to adhere to a list of common obligations which includes confidentiality. All information that is brought to the knowledge of the RMO, its officers and employees, should be governed in the same manner. However, this does not apply to the disclosure of user information for purposes that the authority may prescribe in accordance with section 44. It is likewise inapplicable in cases wherein the authority permits the disclosure or furnishing of the information.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
One of the general powers of authority is the ability to define the duration of control that they exhibit. Under the guide, the authority is expected to cease control in the event that it is convinced that the reasons for their control have been extinguished and when the necessity to assume control is no longer relevant in protecting the interests of the public or the investors. On the other hand, a statutory manager is regarded to have assumed control upon the date of his/her appointment which may be revoked at any time when the Authority is satisfied the reasons for the appointment have also ceased to exist.
Correct
Cap. 289 of the SFA contains a chapter that discusses the general powers of authority. One of the powers bestowed upon them is the ability to define the duration of control that they exhibit. Under the guide, the authority is expected to cease control in the event that it is convinced that the reasons for their control have been extinguished. This is also true when the necessity to assume control is no longer relevant in protecting the interests of the public or the section of the public mentioned in section 46AAB(1)(c)(i), or for the protection of investors. On the other hand, a statutory manager is regarded to have assumed control upon the date of his/her appointment. This appointment in relation to the relevant business of the approved exchange or recognized market operator may be likewise be revoked at any time when the Authority is satisfied the reasons for the appointment have also ceased to exist and the appointment is no longer necessary in the interests of the public or the section of the public mentioned in section 46AAB(1)(c)(i), or for the protection of investors.
Incorrect
Cap. 289 of the SFA contains a chapter that discusses the general powers of authority. One of the powers bestowed upon them is the ability to define the duration of control that they exhibit. Under the guide, the authority is expected to cease control in the event that it is convinced that the reasons for their control have been extinguished. This is also true when the necessity to assume control is no longer relevant in protecting the interests of the public or the section of the public mentioned in section 46AAB(1)(c)(i), or for the protection of investors. On the other hand, a statutory manager is regarded to have assumed control upon the date of his/her appointment. This appointment in relation to the relevant business of the approved exchange or recognized market operator may be likewise be revoked at any time when the Authority is satisfied the reasons for the appointment have also ceased to exist and the appointment is no longer necessary in the interests of the public or the section of the public mentioned in section 46AAB(1)(c)(i), or for the protection of investors.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which of the following does not reflect the guidance on the remuneration and expenses of authority and others under specified cases?
I. The Authority may at any time fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognised market operator to a statutory manager or statutory adviser appointed in relation to the approved exchange or recognised market operator (as the case may be), whether or not the appointment has been revoked
II. The Authority may at any time fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognised market operator to a statutory manager or statutory adviser appointed in relation to the approved exchange or recognised market operator (as the case may be) only until prior the revocation of the appointment.
III. The Authority may at any time fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognised market operator where the Authority has assumed control of the relevant business of the approved exchange or recognised market operator (as the case may be), to the Authority and any person appointed by the Authority under section 320 in relation to the Authority’s assumption of control of the relevant business, whether or not the Authority has ceased to be in control of the relevant business.
IV. The Authority may at any time fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognised market operator where the Authority has assumed control of the relevant business of the approved exchange or recognised market operator (as the case may be), to the Authority and any person appointed by the Authority under section 320 in relation to the Authority’s assumption of control of the relevant business, only prior to the Authority’s cessation of control over relevant business.Correct
Cap. 289 of the SFA contains a chapter that discusses the general powers of authority. One of the powers bestowed upon them is the ability to fixate the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognized market operator. This may be directed to a statutory manager or statutory adviser designated in relation to the approved exchange or regulated market operator whether or not appointment has been revoked. In the event that Authority has obtained the possession of control over the relevant business, the Authority may at any time accordingly fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognized market operator to the authority whether or not the control over relevant business has ceased.
Incorrect
Cap. 289 of the SFA contains a chapter that discusses the general powers of authority. One of the powers bestowed upon them is the ability to fixate the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognized market operator. This may be directed to a statutory manager or statutory adviser designated in relation to the approved exchange or regulated market operator whether or not appointment has been revoked. In the event that Authority has obtained the possession of control over the relevant business, the Authority may at any time accordingly fix the remuneration and expenses to be paid by an approved exchange or a recognized market operator to the authority whether or not the control over relevant business has ceased.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which of the following defines the guidelines for the authorization of benchmark administrators?
I. No person may carry on, or hold himself out as carrying on, a business of administering a designated benchmark, unless the person is an authorized benchmark administrator.
II. No person may hold himself out as an authorized benchmark administrator, unless he is an authorized benchmark administrator.
III. Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $250,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 8 years or to both and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $25,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.
IV. Any person who contravenes subsection (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $50,000 and, in the case of a continuing offence, to a further fine not exceeding $1,000 for every day or part of a day during which the offence continues after conviction.Correct
Part VIAA of the SFA Cap. 289 outlines the requirements with regards to the authorization of benchmark administrators, of which states that no person may hold himself out as carrying on the business of administering a designated benchmark unless he/she has rightfully been authorized as a benchmark administrator.
Incorrect
Part VIAA of the SFA Cap. 289 outlines the requirements with regards to the authorization of benchmark administrators, of which states that no person may hold himself out as carrying on the business of administering a designated benchmark unless he/she has rightfully been authorized as a benchmark administrator.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following circumstances qualifies for the revocation of the authorization of a corporation as an authorized benchmark administrator under section 123F(1)?
I. The corporation does not commence carrying out the activity of administering a designated benchmark within 12 months starting on the date on which it was granted the authorization under section 123F(1)
II. The corporation carries on a business of administering a designated benchmark only in respect of one designated benchmark, the Authority has withdrawn the designation of that designated benchmark under section 123C
III. The Authority has reason to believe that the corporation, or any of its officers or employees, has not performed its or their duties efficiently, honestly or fairly
IV. The authorized benchmark administrator fails to pay the annual fee by the date on which such fee is dueCorrect
Part VIAA of the SFA Cap. 289 establishes a guide on the promotion of fair and transparent determination of financial benchmarks and the reduction of systemic risks. Among the many grounds for revocation include the failure to commence the activity of administering a designated benchmark within 12 months from the date on which it was granted administration. Dismissal may also be applicable for a corporation that carries on the business of administering a designated benchmark of which may be withdrawn, and when Authority is convinced that the corporation has not performed its or their duties efficiently, honestly or fairly.
Incorrect
Part VIAA of the SFA Cap. 289 establishes a guide on the promotion of fair and transparent determination of financial benchmarks and the reduction of systemic risks. Among the many grounds for revocation include the failure to commence the activity of administering a designated benchmark within 12 months from the date on which it was granted administration. Dismissal may also be applicable for a corporation that carries on the business of administering a designated benchmark of which may be withdrawn, and when Authority is convinced that the corporation has not performed its or their duties efficiently, honestly or fairly.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Which of the following are among the duties governed by a benchmark administrator?
I. To manage any risks associated with its business and operations prudently
II. To ensure that the systems and controls concerning its performing the activity of providing information in relation to a designated benchmark are adequate and appropriate for the scale and nature of its operations
III. To have sufficient financial, human and system resources
IV. To require the disclosure of interests in any entity, arrangement or trust other than a corporationCorrect
When a person is authorized or designated to be a benchmark submitter, he/she is subject to general obligations in relation to the designated benchmark in respect of which it provides information. A benchmark administrator is expected to govern and oversee risks that may arise in the conduct of business and operations, ascertain that systems and controls related to the performance of the duty of providing information associated with the designated benchmark are substantial and appropriate to cover the scale and nature of its operations, and have sufficient financial, human, and system resources among others.
Incorrect
When a person is authorized or designated to be a benchmark submitter, he/she is subject to general obligations in relation to the designated benchmark in respect of which it provides information. A benchmark administrator is expected to govern and oversee risks that may arise in the conduct of business and operations, ascertain that systems and controls related to the performance of the duty of providing information associated with the designated benchmark are substantial and appropriate to cover the scale and nature of its operations, and have sufficient financial, human, and system resources among others.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Which of the following are false regarding the applicability of the power of authority to make prohibition orders?
Correct
General powers are also bestowed upon authority which includes the power to make prohibition orders. The power of authority to make prohibition orders is not applicable for when any authorized benchmark submitter or designated benchmark submitter is aggrieved by the refusal of the Authority to grant an approval with regards to the appointment of a person as to its chief executive officer or directors as this constitutes grounds under which a benchmark submitter may appeal to the minister within 30 days from date of notification.
Incorrect
General powers are also bestowed upon authority which includes the power to make prohibition orders. The power of authority to make prohibition orders is not applicable for when any authorized benchmark submitter or designated benchmark submitter is aggrieved by the refusal of the Authority to grant an approval with regards to the appointment of a person as to its chief executive officer or directors as this constitutes grounds under which a benchmark submitter may appeal to the minister within 30 days from date of notification.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following reflects the effects of prohibition orders relating to financial benchmarks?
I. When a prohibition order is made against a person and notified to an authorized benchmark, the authorized benchmark administrator or exempt benchmark administrator (as the case may be), must not employ the first mentioned person to carry out the activity, or in connection with the activity, of administering a designated benchmark, or use the first mentioned person’s service, information or expressions of opinion, to the extent that this is prohibited by the order.
II. Any person who contravenes subsection (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $ 50,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years or to both.
III. Prohibition orders creates an effect on agreements, transactions or arrangements entered into by the person against whom the order is made, whether the agreement, transaction or arrangement was entered into before, on or after the issue of the prohibition order
IV. Prohibition orders affect any right, obligation or liability arising under agreement, transaction or arrangement entered into.Correct
The authority is equipped with general powers that allow them to govern and oversee the operations of financial benchmarks. Among their general powers is the ability to make prohibition orders that obliges a person to whom it is issued to comply with whatever is indicated by the order. This is applicable under circumstances such as when the Authority cancels or revokes the authorization of the relevant person as an authorized benchmark administrator or authorized benchmark submitter.
Incorrect
The authority is equipped with general powers that allow them to govern and oversee the operations of financial benchmarks. Among their general powers is the ability to make prohibition orders that obliges a person to whom it is issued to comply with whatever is indicated by the order. This is applicable under circumstances such as when the Authority cancels or revokes the authorization of the relevant person as an authorized benchmark administrator or authorized benchmark submitter.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
With regards to subsection 1 of the guidelines regarding the power of authority to make prohibition orders, what constitutes a relevant person?
I. An authorized benchmark administrator or a person who was previously an authorized benchmark administrator
II. A person that is exempt from the requirement to be authorized as an authorized benchmark administrator under section 123K(1) or a person who was previously so exempt
III. An authorized benchmark submitter or a person who was previously an authorized benchmark submitter
IV. A person who holds himself as carrying on the business of administering a designated benchmark without authorizationCorrect
The Authority is equipped with general powers that allow them to govern and oversee the operations of financial benchmarks. Among their general powers is the ability to make prohibition orders that obliges a person to whom it is issued to comply with whatever is indicated by the order. The guide attaches a list of what constitutes a relevant person to clarify the vagueness of the implications. This list includes any authorised benchmark administrator or a person who was previously an authorised benchmark administrator, any person that is exempt from the requirement to be authorised as an authorised benchmark administrator under section 123K(1) or a person who was previously so exempt or any authorised benchmark submitter or a person who was previously an authorised benchmark submitter.
Incorrect
The Authority is equipped with general powers that allow them to govern and oversee the operations of financial benchmarks. Among their general powers is the ability to make prohibition orders that obliges a person to whom it is issued to comply with whatever is indicated by the order. The guide attaches a list of what constitutes a relevant person to clarify the vagueness of the implications. This list includes any authorised benchmark administrator or a person who was previously an authorised benchmark administrator, any person that is exempt from the requirement to be authorised as an authorised benchmark administrator under section 123K(1) or a person who was previously so exempt or any authorised benchmark submitter or a person who was previously an authorised benchmark submitter.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Which of the following are false with regards to the RMO’s duty to notify Authority on certain matters?
Correct
The RMO regime is an application of MAS’ risk-based approach towards market operators, matching regulatory requirements to the risks posed by the market. Common regulations adhered by RMOs include reporting any irregularities or matters, which based on its judgement, may impact the participant of the RMO to meet the financial obligations pertaining to the said RMO.
Incorrect
The RMO regime is an application of MAS’ risk-based approach towards market operators, matching regulatory requirements to the risks posed by the market. Common regulations adhered by RMOs include reporting any irregularities or matters, which based on its judgement, may impact the participant of the RMO to meet the financial obligations pertaining to the said RMO.