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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following are MAS’ objectives in regulating markets?
I. Promotion of fair, orderly, and transparent markets
II. Facilitation of efficient markets for the allocation of liabilities and the transfer of risks.
III.Reduction of systematic risks
IV. Compliance with written laws and other related entitiesCorrect
One of the objectives not mentioned is the facilitation of efficient markets for the allocation of capital and the transfer of risks. An efficient market has a reliable and unhindered process that is exposed to the competition of bids and offers of the participants. It can efficiently allocate limited capital to its most effective use.
Incorrect
One of the objectives not mentioned is the facilitation of efficient markets for the allocation of capital and the transfer of risks. An efficient market has a reliable and unhindered process that is exposed to the competition of bids and offers of the participants. It can efficiently allocate limited capital to its most effective use.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the following pertains to a fair, orderly, and transparent market?
I. A market that favors some participants over others and gives them more access to market facilities and information.
II. A market with organized and reliable procedures for the facilitation of smooth transactions.
III. A market with trading information available for public use such as corporate announcement information and pre-trade information.
IV. A market with diverse processes that may confuse investors.Correct
A fair, orderly, and transparent market has established processes to meet the needs of investors. It must be unbiased towards investors and other related participants. Information should always be available regardless of who is interested.
Incorrect
A fair, orderly, and transparent market has established processes to meet the needs of investors. It must be unbiased towards investors and other related participants. Information should always be available regardless of who is interested.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
What is Pre-trade Information?
Correct
The prefix “pre” indicates that this term pertains to information available before transactions. This is information regarding bids and offers are publicized in the market to attract potential investors or other related participants.
Incorrect
The prefix “pre” indicates that this term pertains to information available before transactions. This is information regarding bids and offers are publicized in the market to attract potential investors or other related participants.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
What term refers to previously offered listed or unlisted securities that are now available for secondary trading?
Correct
Issued securities are financial instruments such as bonds, debentures, or common stocks. These securities may or may not be listed in the securities market. Issued securities are available for secondary trading.
Incorrect
Issued securities are financial instruments such as bonds, debentures, or common stocks. These securities may or may not be listed in the securities market. Issued securities are available for secondary trading.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
When are investors considered to have direct access to the market?
Correct
When an investor is based overseas, a third party usually helps them access bids and offers in the market. For example, an investor enters an overseas market through intermediaries in Singapore who are also in contact with other intermediaries. Having direct access to a market means the investor does not need intermediaries to purchase or sell futures contracts or securities.
Incorrect
When an investor is based overseas, a third party usually helps them access bids and offers in the market. For example, an investor enters an overseas market through intermediaries in Singapore who are also in contact with other intermediaries. Having direct access to a market means the investor does not need intermediaries to purchase or sell futures contracts or securities.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
What is not a factor for considering the regulation of a market operator in an approved exchange or RMO?
Correct
To be approved as a market operator in an RMO, MAS looks into various factors to determine if it is systemically important such as the size of the market, the nature of its provided services, the nature of the participants, etc. In addition, the corporation must be regulated by MAS or other written laws.
Incorrect
To be approved as a market operator in an RMO, MAS looks into various factors to determine if it is systemically important such as the size of the market, the nature of its provided services, the nature of the participants, etc. In addition, the corporation must be regulated by MAS or other written laws.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
What term refers to a short term debt issued by the government to finance their deficits?
Correct
Treasury bills are government short-dated securities that are issued at a discount from the par value of the bill. These are used to fund public projects and investments. It is considered to be safe since it is released by the government.
Incorrect
Treasury bills are government short-dated securities that are issued at a discount from the par value of the bill. These are used to fund public projects and investments. It is considered to be safe since it is released by the government.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following is the right to sell assets at an agreed price on a specific date?
Correct
Options are part of derivatives. A put option gives the holder the right to sell a stock. On the other hand, a call option gives the holder the right to buy a stock.
Incorrect
Options are part of derivatives. A put option gives the holder the right to sell a stock. On the other hand, a call option gives the holder the right to buy a stock.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following is computed to obtain the current value of money needed to achieve a specific future cash flow?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following risks are associated with a relevant product exchange?
I. Reputational risks
II. Legal Risks
III. Audit Risks
IV. Operational RisksCorrect
A relevant product exchange deals with reputational risks, legal risks, and operational risks daily which is why it needs to undergo an assessment to mitigate such risks and improve internal controls.
Incorrect
A relevant product exchange deals with reputational risks, legal risks, and operational risks daily which is why it needs to undergo an assessment to mitigate such risks and improve internal controls.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
What is the term defined to be the net present value of the cash flow to the stockholders or equity shareholders?
Correct
Flow to equity is the measure of how much cash is available to equity shareholders after the deduction of expenditures and reinvestments. The components of flow to equity are net income, working capital, capital expenditures, and debt.
Incorrect
Flow to equity is the measure of how much cash is available to equity shareholders after the deduction of expenditures and reinvestments. The components of flow to equity are net income, working capital, capital expenditures, and debt.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following must a relevant product exchange comply with before de-listing a futures contract?
I. The delisting of a futures contract will not cause any disruptions in the market
II. At the point of delisting, open interests are no longer available
III. There is no breach of any legal obligation in the delisting of a futures contract
IV. Remains of open interest in the future contract are non-existentCorrect
In the delisting of a futures contract, any open interests and legal obligations attached to the futures contract may cause disruptions in the market. Thus, it is important to check whether these will cause any disputes upon delisting.
Incorrect
In the delisting of a futures contract, any open interests and legal obligations attached to the futures contract may cause disruptions in the market. Thus, it is important to check whether these will cause any disputes upon delisting.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following are the factors of determining the effectiveness of a futures exchange’s position limit in mitigating the risk of market manipulation?
I. The position limit’s material reduction of open interest accumulation in a futures contract
II. The position limit’s material reduction of any party’s ability to direct the futures contract price
III. The position limit’s material reduction of any party’s ability to direct the futures contract underlying price
IV. The position limit’s material reduction of any party’s expenses related to the future’s contractCorrect
The position limit is the maximum position determined by an exchange. It is held or controlled by any party to the futures contract. It may be either net long or net short.
Incorrect
The position limit is the maximum position determined by an exchange. It is held or controlled by any party to the futures contract. It may be either net long or net short.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
What characteristics must a futures exchange ensure in each futures contract?
I. Market conditions are reliably reflected
II. Manipulation is least likely to occur
III. One party changes the terms without the knowledge of the other
IV. Third parties are involved with the knowledge of one partyCorrect
A futures exchange should be reliable and transparent. Both parties must be aware of the terms of their exchange and avoid actions that would damage the credibility and confidentiality of the futures exchange.
Incorrect
A futures exchange should be reliable and transparent. Both parties must be aware of the terms of their exchange and avoid actions that would damage the credibility and confidentiality of the futures exchange.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following statements is true when a futures contract allows a physical delivery?
Correct
Physical delivery of the futures contract must ensure that the underlying thing of the futures contract is delivered in a safe, reliable, and timely manner. There must be proper delivery procedures in place for such physical delivery.
Incorrect
Physical delivery of the futures contract must ensure that the underlying thing of the futures contract is delivered in a safe, reliable, and timely manner. There must be proper delivery procedures in place for such physical delivery.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the following information is needed when a position accountability threshold is exceeded?
I. The rationale on why such a large position is needed
II. Explanation of how the position furthers the party’s trading strategy
III. Its applicability on hedging and its contracts hedged against
IV. The effects on the related parties brought by the exceeded accountability thresholdCorrect
The position accountability threshold is set to reduce the likelihood of one of the parties influencing the price or value of the underlying thing. When exceeded, it may have an effect on the process or orderly trading of the futures contract.
Incorrect
The position accountability threshold is set to reduce the likelihood of one of the parties influencing the price or value of the underlying thing. When exceeded, it may have an effect on the process or orderly trading of the futures contract.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
When an exchange has alternative products listed or permitted in an organized market, what must be presented to the authorities?
Correct
Alternative products are other products other than the futures contract. The framework must contain the risk assessment or each alternative product and how these risks are mitigated in the framework.
Incorrect
Alternative products are other products other than the futures contract. The framework must contain the risk assessment or each alternative product and how these risks are mitigated in the framework.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
When should MAS be informed if a relevant product exchange intends to change the specifications of a product?
Correct
The Securities and Futures Act requires MAS to be informed on the earlier between one week before the announcement regarding the change or one week before the changes are in effect.
Incorrect
The Securities and Futures Act requires MAS to be informed on the earlier between one week before the announcement regarding the change or one week before the changes are in effect.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following are the objectives of Brokers and Submitters?
I. Display the highest ethical standards, integrity, and professionalism
II. Maintain an audit trail for data gathered from trade routed electronically
III. Guide staff members and ensure that they are involved in the benchmark contribution process
IV. Create own methodologies and include all transaction data in the computation of a Traded BenchmarkCorrect
Traded Benchmarks are susceptible to market abuse and are significantly impacted by low liquidity and market volatility, To avoid any fallback or market disruptions, Brokers and Submitters must transact objectively and adhere to established methodologies.
Incorrect
Traded Benchmarks are susceptible to market abuse and are significantly impacted by low liquidity and market volatility, To avoid any fallback or market disruptions, Brokers and Submitters must transact objectively and adhere to established methodologies.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
What are the roots of trading-related scandals?
I. Internal controls
II. Segregated Duties
III. Written laws and authorities
IV. Documentation of activitiesCorrect
Trading related scandals start from inadequate internal controls and segregated duties. Internal controls and segregation of duties must be designed to mitigate the risks of corruption, money laundering, and other serious crimes.
Incorrect
Trading related scandals start from inadequate internal controls and segregated duties. Internal controls and segregation of duties must be designed to mitigate the risks of corruption, money laundering, and other serious crimes.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
What must be done in case of line failures or when the connection is lost in the middle of a transaction?
Correct
The parties must attempt to communicate with each other immediately in the event of line failures or disconnections. Delays may lead to misunderstandings in case one party decides to cancel the transaction without the knowledge of the other party.
Incorrect
The parties must attempt to communicate with each other immediately in the event of line failures or disconnections. Delays may lead to misunderstandings in case one party decides to cancel the transaction without the knowledge of the other party.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
What should a broker do when a market participant is interested in one side of a two-way price and the other parties are dealing with the other side?
Correct
The broker should first put the price under reference, then check with the Market Participant to establish the latter’s original interest. Two-way prices include both an offer price and bid price. This is a type of quote normally used in foreign exchange markets.
Incorrect
The broker should first put the price under reference, then check with the Market Participant to establish the latter’s original interest. Two-way prices include both an offer price and bid price. This is a type of quote normally used in foreign exchange markets.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
How should Market Participants handle client orders?
I. Handle orders with promptness
II. Be professional
III. Prioritize fairness and transparency
IV. Organize orders based on personal preferenceCorrect
Where Market Participants are handling client orders, these orders should be handled promptly, professionally, with fairness and transparency, and with due regard to the best interests of the client.
Incorrect
Where Market Participants are handling client orders, these orders should be handled promptly, professionally, with fairness and transparency, and with due regard to the best interests of the client.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
What should brokers do when special conditions are attached to a market participant’s order?
Correct
Brokers must communicate the special conditions to the other parties immediately and accurately. This must be done to avoid any misunderstandings and disputes among the parties.
Incorrect
Brokers must communicate the special conditions to the other parties immediately and accurately. This must be done to avoid any misunderstandings and disputes among the parties.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
What key principle requires the compatibility of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) requirements with legal and administrative systems?
Correct
Functional Equivalence and Objectives-based approaches are flexible when it comes to diverse legal and administrative systems. They provide concept-based explanations on the process of implementations to allow different options when appropriate.
Incorrect
Functional Equivalence and Objectives-based approaches are flexible when it comes to diverse legal and administrative systems. They provide concept-based explanations on the process of implementations to allow different options when appropriate.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Which of the following statements about technology-neutrality and future-proofing requirements of virtual assets is true?
Correct
Technology-neutrality and future-proofing are intended to apply to the technologies of different countries and relevant entities. The requirements are flexible and may apply irrespective of the technological platform involved.
Incorrect
Technology-neutrality and future-proofing are intended to apply to the technologies of different countries and relevant entities. The requirements are flexible and may apply irrespective of the technological platform involved.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
What term refers to a representation of value that can be digitally traded for investments or payments?
Correct
Virtual assets are a representation of value such as cryptocurrencies like bitcoin. Although it is called innovative, there are risks associated with it such as the anonymity and limited verification of participants.
Incorrect
Virtual assets are a representation of value such as cryptocurrencies like bitcoin. Although it is called innovative, there are risks associated with it such as the anonymity and limited verification of participants.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following are principal objects and functions of the Authority?
I. To monitor and maintain the price stability beneficial to the growth of the economy
II. To boost Singapore’s competitive financial center in an international aspect
III. To manage the foreign reserves of Singapore
IV. To allow financial markets to develop their monetary policies and payment systems.Correct
The Authority’s role as the central financial center in the country is crucial to the economy’s stability. As a financial agent of the Government, it is their role to conduct monetary policies and payment systems to promote a better and conducive financial market for the investors and participants.
Incorrect
The Authority’s role as the central financial center in the country is crucial to the economy’s stability. As a financial agent of the Government, it is their role to conduct monetary policies and payment systems to promote a better and conducive financial market for the investors and participants.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Which of the following are considered for the appointment of the director of the Monetary Authority of Singapore?
I. The director shall act as a delegate on the board from financial, agricultural, and commercial interests
II. 3 years maximum term in office
III. Shall be eligible for reappointment
IV. May receive remuneration and allowances from the funds of the AuthorityCorrect
The director must decide only for the best interests of the organization. The term of a managing director is 3 years maximum. This position may receive remuneration and allowances from the funds of the institution.
Incorrect
The director must decide only for the best interests of the organization. The term of a managing director is 3 years maximum. This position may receive remuneration and allowances from the funds of the institution.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Which of the following statements about the managing director is false?
Correct
A managing director must be impartial with his decisions. Influences from third parties may disrupt the organization. Conflict of interest may arise if the managing director is also a director in a related financial organization.
Incorrect
A managing director must be impartial with his decisions. Influences from third parties may disrupt the organization. Conflict of interest may arise if the managing director is also a director in a related financial organization.