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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A Mainboard Issuer has been on the SGX watch-list for 36 months due to not meeting the required financial criteria. The issuer has not submitted any application for delisting or demonstrated significant improvement. According to Rule 1315 of the Mainboard Listing Manual, what action is SGX-ST most likely to take?
Correct
According to Rule 1315 of the Mainboard Listing Manual, if a Mainboard Issuer fails to submit a delisting application within 36 months of being placed on the watch-list, SGX-ST has the authority to either delist the issuer or suspend trading of its securities with the intention of delisting, without needing the issuer’s agreement. This rule is designed to address situations where companies on the watch-list do not take adequate steps to rectify their financial or operational issues within a reasonable timeframe. The other options do not accurately reflect the actions SGX-ST can take according to the Mainboard Listing Manual.
Incorrect
According to Rule 1315 of the Mainboard Listing Manual, if a Mainboard Issuer fails to submit a delisting application within 36 months of being placed on the watch-list, SGX-ST has the authority to either delist the issuer or suspend trading of its securities with the intention of delisting, without needing the issuer’s agreement. This rule is designed to address situations where companies on the watch-list do not take adequate steps to rectify their financial or operational issues within a reasonable timeframe. The other options do not accurately reflect the actions SGX-ST can take according to the Mainboard Listing Manual.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
In the process of listing on the Mainboard of the Singapore Exchange (SGX-ST), which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibilities of the involved parties when submitting Section (A) of the Listing Admissions Pack?
Correct
The issue manager plays a crucial role in confirming the issuer’s compliance with Mainboard Rules before submitting Section (A) of the Listing Admissions Pack to SGX-ST. This confirmation is based on a thorough enquiry, ensuring that all relevant requirements are met. While the issue manager assists in preparing the listing application and ensures all material information is submitted, the ultimate responsibility for the accuracy and completeness of the information lies with the issuer and its directors. SGX-ST assesses the adequacy of the resolutions to key issues identified in Section (A), and MAS reviews the prospectus for compliance with the Securities and Futures Act (SFA) and the Singapore Financial Reporting Standards (SFR).
Incorrect
The issue manager plays a crucial role in confirming the issuer’s compliance with Mainboard Rules before submitting Section (A) of the Listing Admissions Pack to SGX-ST. This confirmation is based on a thorough enquiry, ensuring that all relevant requirements are met. While the issue manager assists in preparing the listing application and ensures all material information is submitted, the ultimate responsibility for the accuracy and completeness of the information lies with the issuer and its directors. SGX-ST assesses the adequacy of the resolutions to key issues identified in Section (A), and MAS reviews the prospectus for compliance with the Securities and Futures Act (SFA) and the Singapore Financial Reporting Standards (SFR).
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Under Singapore’s Corruption, Drug Trafficking and Other Serious Crimes (Confiscation of Benefits) Act (CDSA), what constitutes an offense under Section 43(1) concerning assisting another to retain benefits of criminal conduct?
Correct
Section 43(1) of the CDSA addresses the scenario where a person knowingly assists another in retaining benefits from drug trafficking or criminal conduct through an arrangement. This includes facilitating the concealment, removal from jurisdiction, or transfer of such benefits, or using them to secure funds or acquire property for the other person’s benefit. The key element is the knowledge or reasonable grounds to believe that the arrangement facilitates the retention or control of benefits from drug trafficking or criminal conduct, and that the other person is involved in such activities. Therefore, entering into an arrangement with the knowledge that it will help someone retain benefits from criminal conduct is a violation.
Incorrect
Section 43(1) of the CDSA addresses the scenario where a person knowingly assists another in retaining benefits from drug trafficking or criminal conduct through an arrangement. This includes facilitating the concealment, removal from jurisdiction, or transfer of such benefits, or using them to secure funds or acquire property for the other person’s benefit. The key element is the knowledge or reasonable grounds to believe that the arrangement facilitates the retention or control of benefits from drug trafficking or criminal conduct, and that the other person is involved in such activities. Therefore, entering into an arrangement with the knowledge that it will help someone retain benefits from criminal conduct is a violation.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Under Section 274 of the Securities and Futures Act (SFA) in Singapore, which of the following entities would be classified as an ‘institutional investor’ for the purpose of offering bonds without the need for a prospectus?
Correct
Section 274 of the SFA stipulates that prospectus requirements do not apply to offers made to institutional investors. Among the entities listed as institutional investors are banks licensed under the Banking Act, merchant banks approved under the Monetary Authority of Singapore Act, and finance companies licensed under the Finance Companies Act. These entities are considered sophisticated enough to evaluate investment opportunities without the full prospectus requirements. Insurance companies and trust companies licensed under relevant acts are also included. Entities holding specific capital markets services licenses, such as those for dealing in securities or fund management, also qualify. Furthermore, entities dealing with accredited or expert investors in bonds, pension funds, collective investment schemes, and trustees prescribed by MAS are considered institutional investors. Finally, entities declared by MAS as institutional investors, such as designated market-makers and headquarters companies involved in fund management, also fall under this category.
Incorrect
Section 274 of the SFA stipulates that prospectus requirements do not apply to offers made to institutional investors. Among the entities listed as institutional investors are banks licensed under the Banking Act, merchant banks approved under the Monetary Authority of Singapore Act, and finance companies licensed under the Finance Companies Act. These entities are considered sophisticated enough to evaluate investment opportunities without the full prospectus requirements. Insurance companies and trust companies licensed under relevant acts are also included. Entities holding specific capital markets services licenses, such as those for dealing in securities or fund management, also qualify. Furthermore, entities dealing with accredited or expert investors in bonds, pension funds, collective investment schemes, and trustees prescribed by MAS are considered institutional investors. Finally, entities declared by MAS as institutional investors, such as designated market-makers and headquarters companies involved in fund management, also fall under this category.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A listed company’s Investor Relations (IR) team is concerned that upcoming financial results might disappoint market expectations. To mitigate a potential stock price drop, they selectively disclose some preliminary positive data points to a small group of analysts during a private briefing, hoping the analysts will publish favorable reports. According to the SGX-ST Mainboard Listing Manual concerning corporate disclosure policy, is this practice acceptable?
Correct
According to the SGX-ST listing rules, selective disclosure is permissible only under specific circumstances, such as during a major corporate exercise requiring shareholder support or during due diligence for an acquisition or merger. Such disclosure must be on a need-to-know basis and subject to confidentiality restraints. Disclosing information to analysts simply to manage market expectations does not fall under these permissible exceptions and would violate the principle of equal access to information.
Incorrect
According to the SGX-ST listing rules, selective disclosure is permissible only under specific circumstances, such as during a major corporate exercise requiring shareholder support or during due diligence for an acquisition or merger. Such disclosure must be on a need-to-know basis and subject to confidentiality restraints. Disclosing information to analysts simply to manage market expectations does not fall under these permissible exceptions and would violate the principle of equal access to information.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A corporation listed on the SGX-ST is considering a proposal that would significantly alter the dividend payment structure for all shareholders, including preference shareholders. Under what circumstance are the preference shareholders entitled to vote on this matter, according to SGX-ST listing rules?
Correct
According to SGX-ST listing rules, preference shareholders possess voting rights in specific scenarios, including meetings concerning the reduction of capital, winding up, or the sale of the issuer’s undertaking. They also have voting rights when a proposition directly affects their rights and privileges or when dividends on preference shares are in arrears for more than six months. The scenario describes a situation where the proposition directly affects the rights and privileges of the preference shareholders, thus triggering their voting rights.
Incorrect
According to SGX-ST listing rules, preference shareholders possess voting rights in specific scenarios, including meetings concerning the reduction of capital, winding up, or the sale of the issuer’s undertaking. They also have voting rights when a proposition directly affects their rights and privileges or when dividends on preference shares are in arrears for more than six months. The scenario describes a situation where the proposition directly affects the rights and privileges of the preference shareholders, thus triggering their voting rights.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
An employee of Stellar Corp, a company listed on the SGX-ST, engages in insider trading, making a personal profit and also boosting Stellar Corp’s short-term stock price before a major acquisition. The board of directors was aware of the employee’s actions but took no steps to stop them. According to the Securities and Futures Act (SFA), what is the likely outcome regarding Stellar Corp’s liability?
Correct
Under Section 236B(1) of the SFA, a corporation can be held liable for market misconduct committed by its employee if the breach occurred with the consent or connivance of the corporation and for its benefit. Consent or connivance, as defined in Section 236B(8), includes instances where the board of directors or a high managerial agent intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly authorized or permitted the act, or where a corporate culture encouraged the contravention. Therefore, if the board of directors was aware of the employee’s actions and did nothing to prevent them, the corporation could be held liable. The fact that the employee benefited personally does not negate the corporation’s liability if the actions were also for the corporation’s benefit and with its consent or connivance.
Incorrect
Under Section 236B(1) of the SFA, a corporation can be held liable for market misconduct committed by its employee if the breach occurred with the consent or connivance of the corporation and for its benefit. Consent or connivance, as defined in Section 236B(8), includes instances where the board of directors or a high managerial agent intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly authorized or permitted the act, or where a corporate culture encouraged the contravention. Therefore, if the board of directors was aware of the employee’s actions and did nothing to prevent them, the corporation could be held liable. The fact that the employee benefited personally does not negate the corporation’s liability if the actions were also for the corporation’s benefit and with its consent or connivance.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A new client opens an account with a CMS licensed firm. After 45 business days, the client’s identity verification is still pending due to documentation delays on their end. Despite this, the representative continues to execute trades as instructed by the client. According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02 on anti-money laundering, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Correct
According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02, a CMS licence holder must suspend business relations with a customer if verification remains uncompleted 30 business days after the establishment of business relations, and terminate business relations if verification remains uncompleted 120 business days after the establishment of business relations. These time limitations must be factored into its policies, procedures and controls. Therefore, continuing to execute trades beyond 30 days without verification is a violation.
Incorrect
According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02, a CMS licence holder must suspend business relations with a customer if verification remains uncompleted 30 business days after the establishment of business relations, and terminate business relations if verification remains uncompleted 120 business days after the establishment of business relations. These time limitations must be factored into its policies, procedures and controls. Therefore, continuing to execute trades beyond 30 days without verification is a violation.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
During a takeover bid for ‘SynergyTech Ltd,’ the acquiring company, ‘Innovate Corp,’ announces it has secured acceptances bringing its total holdings to 92% of SynergyTech’s issued shares (excluding treasury shares). However, this holding is distributed among only 350 public shareholders. SynergyTech is listed on the Mainboard. According to Rule 1105 of the SGX-ST Listing Manual, what is the MOST likely course of action by the SGX-ST?
Correct
Rule 1105 of the SGX-ST Listing Manual grants SGX-ST the discretion to suspend trading of a listed issuer’s shares under specific takeover conditions. This rule is triggered when a takeover offer is made, and the offeror announces acceptances that would bring their total shareholding, along with parties acting in concert, to over 90% of the listed issuer’s issued shares (excluding treasury shares). The primary aim of this rule is to ensure sufficient public float and shareholder participation. The rule stipulates that to lift the suspension, at least 10% of the issued shares must be held by a minimum number of public shareholders (500 for Mainboard, 200 for Catalist). This contrasts with a free float delisting, which focuses solely on the percentage of shares held by the public, without a specific minimum number of shareholders. The definition of ‘public shareholders’ excludes directors, CEOs, substantial shareholders, controlling shareholders, and associates of these individuals, ensuring that the free float requirement is met by genuine public participation. The rule is discretionary, allowing SGX-ST to assess the specific circumstances before deciding on suspension. The threshold of 90% is based on issued shares only, excluding options, warrants, and other convertible securities. Suspension under Rule 1105 does not automatically lead to delisting; the listed issuer remains bound by the Listing Manual’s obligations.
Incorrect
Rule 1105 of the SGX-ST Listing Manual grants SGX-ST the discretion to suspend trading of a listed issuer’s shares under specific takeover conditions. This rule is triggered when a takeover offer is made, and the offeror announces acceptances that would bring their total shareholding, along with parties acting in concert, to over 90% of the listed issuer’s issued shares (excluding treasury shares). The primary aim of this rule is to ensure sufficient public float and shareholder participation. The rule stipulates that to lift the suspension, at least 10% of the issued shares must be held by a minimum number of public shareholders (500 for Mainboard, 200 for Catalist). This contrasts with a free float delisting, which focuses solely on the percentage of shares held by the public, without a specific minimum number of shareholders. The definition of ‘public shareholders’ excludes directors, CEOs, substantial shareholders, controlling shareholders, and associates of these individuals, ensuring that the free float requirement is met by genuine public participation. The rule is discretionary, allowing SGX-ST to assess the specific circumstances before deciding on suspension. The threshold of 90% is based on issued shares only, excluding options, warrants, and other convertible securities. Suspension under Rule 1105 does not automatically lead to delisting; the listed issuer remains bound by the Listing Manual’s obligations.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A REIT is seeking to list on the SGX-ST Mainboard. Its controlling unitholder grants the REIT a right of first refusal (ROFR) to mitigate potential conflicts of interest. Under what condition, according to the listing rules, would this ROFR be considered no longer effective in mitigating conflicts of interest?
Correct
According to the SGX-ST Mainboard listing rules for REITs, a right of first refusal (ROFR) granted by the REIT’s controlling unitholder is considered an effective mitigation of conflicts of interest only if it meets specific conditions. The ROFR must give the REIT the priority to acquire competing assets from the controlling unitholder and/or its subsidiaries. Critically, this ROFR must remain valid as long as the Manager remains the manager of the REIT, and the REIT’s controlling unitholder, along with its related corporations, remains a controlling shareholder of the Manager. If the ROFR ceases to be valid under these conditions, it no longer serves its intended purpose of mitigating conflicts of interest, potentially disadvantaging the REIT and its unitholders.
Incorrect
According to the SGX-ST Mainboard listing rules for REITs, a right of first refusal (ROFR) granted by the REIT’s controlling unitholder is considered an effective mitigation of conflicts of interest only if it meets specific conditions. The ROFR must give the REIT the priority to acquire competing assets from the controlling unitholder and/or its subsidiaries. Critically, this ROFR must remain valid as long as the Manager remains the manager of the REIT, and the REIT’s controlling unitholder, along with its related corporations, remains a controlling shareholder of the Manager. If the ROFR ceases to be valid under these conditions, it no longer serves its intended purpose of mitigating conflicts of interest, potentially disadvantaging the REIT and its unitholders.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
According to the Securities and Futures (Market Conduct) (Exemptions) Regulations 2006, what is the minimum total value of securities offered in an IPO (calculated on the basis of the offer price) for price stabilization activities to be exempt from prohibitions against false trading and market rigging?
Correct
Price stabilization during an IPO, as governed by the Securities and Futures (Market Conduct) (Exemptions) Regulations 2006, requires adherence to specific conditions to be exempt from prohibitions against market manipulation. One of these conditions relates to the total value of securities offered. The regulations stipulate a minimum threshold for the total value of securities offered in the IPO to qualify for the exemption. This threshold ensures that the stabilization activities are associated with offerings of a significant size, justifying the intervention to maintain market order and investor confidence. The other options do not reflect the actual requirements as stipulated in the regulations.
Incorrect
Price stabilization during an IPO, as governed by the Securities and Futures (Market Conduct) (Exemptions) Regulations 2006, requires adherence to specific conditions to be exempt from prohibitions against market manipulation. One of these conditions relates to the total value of securities offered. The regulations stipulate a minimum threshold for the total value of securities offered in the IPO to qualify for the exemption. This threshold ensures that the stabilization activities are associated with offerings of a significant size, justifying the intervention to maintain market order and investor confidence. The other options do not reflect the actual requirements as stipulated in the regulations.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
In the context of an IPO and listing of a registered Business Trust (BT) on the SGX-ST Mainboard, what is the MOST critical responsibility of the issue manager concerning the listing application, as per the Mainboard Rules?
Correct
The issue manager plays a crucial role in the IPO process of a Business Trust (BT) on the SGX-ST Mainboard. According to the Mainboard Rules, specifically Rule 245, the issue manager, along with the sponsor, Trustee-Manager, and other professionals, must ensure that all information material to SGX-ST’s decision is submitted. This includes information that could influence SGX-ST’s assessment of the listing application. The issue manager’s confirmation that the BT meets listing criteria is also a key component of the submission, as outlined in the listing application requirements. While the issue manager assists in preparing the prospectus and trust deed, and may consult with SGX-ST on fundamental issues, the ultimate responsibility for ensuring all material information is disclosed rests with them.
Incorrect
The issue manager plays a crucial role in the IPO process of a Business Trust (BT) on the SGX-ST Mainboard. According to the Mainboard Rules, specifically Rule 245, the issue manager, along with the sponsor, Trustee-Manager, and other professionals, must ensure that all information material to SGX-ST’s decision is submitted. This includes information that could influence SGX-ST’s assessment of the listing application. The issue manager’s confirmation that the BT meets listing criteria is also a key component of the submission, as outlined in the listing application requirements. While the issue manager assists in preparing the prospectus and trust deed, and may consult with SGX-ST on fundamental issues, the ultimate responsibility for ensuring all material information is disclosed rests with them.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
A company with its primary listing on an exchange in a jurisdiction NOT classified as a Developed Market by both MSCI and FTSE seeks a secondary listing on the SGX-ST Mainboard. According to the SGX-ST Mainboard Rules, what specific additional scrutiny will SGX-ST apply?
Correct
A secondary listing on the SGX-ST Mainboard for companies primarily listed in jurisdictions not classified as Developed Markets by both MSCI and FTSE requires a full review by the SGX-ST. This review focuses on the Home Exchange’s legal and regulatory requirements, especially concerning shareholder protection and corporate governance. If deficiencies are found in areas like interested person transactions, acquisitions, realisations, and delisting, the continuing listing obligations in Chapters 9, 10, and 13 of the Mainboard Rules will be imposed. This ensures that companies listed on SGX-ST, even with a primary listing elsewhere, adhere to standards that protect investors and maintain market integrity. The other options do not accurately reflect the specific requirements and considerations for secondary listings from non-Developed Markets.
Incorrect
A secondary listing on the SGX-ST Mainboard for companies primarily listed in jurisdictions not classified as Developed Markets by both MSCI and FTSE requires a full review by the SGX-ST. This review focuses on the Home Exchange’s legal and regulatory requirements, especially concerning shareholder protection and corporate governance. If deficiencies are found in areas like interested person transactions, acquisitions, realisations, and delisting, the continuing listing obligations in Chapters 9, 10, and 13 of the Mainboard Rules will be imposed. This ensures that companies listed on SGX-ST, even with a primary listing elsewhere, adhere to standards that protect investors and maintain market integrity. The other options do not accurately reflect the specific requirements and considerations for secondary listings from non-Developed Markets.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A trading representative receives an unusually large order from a client that, if executed, could significantly increase the trading volume of a particular security. The representative suspects the client’s intention is to create a false impression of high demand. According to SGX-ST Rules regarding market conduct, what is the trading representative’s primary responsibility?
Correct
Engaging in practices that create a false or misleading appearance of active trading or a false market in securities is strictly prohibited under SGX-ST Rules. This includes actions that give the impression of greater trading activity than actually exists, or that distort the true supply and demand dynamics of the market. Trading Members and Trading Representatives must ensure their actions do not mislead investors or create an artificial market environment. While executing client instructions, they must exercise judgment and not blindly follow orders that could lead to market manipulation. The rule focuses on the effect of the order or transaction, requiring an objective assessment of whether it creates a false or misleading appearance.
Incorrect
Engaging in practices that create a false or misleading appearance of active trading or a false market in securities is strictly prohibited under SGX-ST Rules. This includes actions that give the impression of greater trading activity than actually exists, or that distort the true supply and demand dynamics of the market. Trading Members and Trading Representatives must ensure their actions do not mislead investors or create an artificial market environment. While executing client instructions, they must exercise judgment and not blindly follow orders that could lead to market manipulation. The rule focuses on the effect of the order or transaction, requiring an objective assessment of whether it creates a false or misleading appearance.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Mr. Tan, the CEO of a trustee-manager for a Listed Business Trust, recently purchased additional units in the trust. Under the Securities and Futures Act (SFA), what is Mr. Tan’s obligation regarding notifying the trustee-manager of this transaction?
Correct
According to Section 137N of the SFA, a director or CEO of a trustee-manager of a Listed Business Trust must notify the trustee-manager of their interests, or changes in interests, in units or derivatives of units in the Listed Business Trust or debentures or units of debentures of the Listed Business Trust (the “BT Notifiable Securities”). This notification must occur within two business days upon being appointed as a director or CEO, or becoming a holder of or acquiring such interests (whichever is later). The obligation extends to notifying the trustee-manager within 2 business days after becoming aware of any change in interests in the BT Notifiable Securities. The obligation of a director or CEO of a trustee -manager of a Listed Business Trust is to notify the trustee -manager of any change in interests in the BT Notifiable Securities, and not just any change in the “percentage level” of interest in the BT Notifiable Securities. Therefore, the correct answer is that Mr. Tan must notify the trustee-manager within two business days of the transaction.
Incorrect
According to Section 137N of the SFA, a director or CEO of a trustee-manager of a Listed Business Trust must notify the trustee-manager of their interests, or changes in interests, in units or derivatives of units in the Listed Business Trust or debentures or units of debentures of the Listed Business Trust (the “BT Notifiable Securities”). This notification must occur within two business days upon being appointed as a director or CEO, or becoming a holder of or acquiring such interests (whichever is later). The obligation extends to notifying the trustee-manager within 2 business days after becoming aware of any change in interests in the BT Notifiable Securities. The obligation of a director or CEO of a trustee -manager of a Listed Business Trust is to notify the trustee -manager of any change in interests in the BT Notifiable Securities, and not just any change in the “percentage level” of interest in the BT Notifiable Securities. Therefore, the correct answer is that Mr. Tan must notify the trustee-manager within two business days of the transaction.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A corporate finance advisor at a CMS licensed firm notices a series of unusually large transactions in a client’s account, which seem inconsistent with the client’s known business activities and declared risk profile. According to MAS regulations concerning the prevention of financial crimes, what is the MOST appropriate immediate course of action for the advisor?
Correct
CMS licence holders are required to establish policies and procedures to combat financial crimes, including ongoing monitoring of customer accounts and transactions. Unusual patterns of transactions that lack apparent economic or lawful purpose should be given further scrutiny. The firm must make inquiries into the background and purpose of any unusual transactions and document its findings. This information should be available to the relevant authorities should the need arise. Periodic review of customer identification and beneficial ownership information should be conducted to ensure the information is kept up to date, particularly for higher-risk categories of customers. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to escalate the transaction for further review and investigation to determine if it should be reported to the relevant authorities.
Incorrect
CMS licence holders are required to establish policies and procedures to combat financial crimes, including ongoing monitoring of customer accounts and transactions. Unusual patterns of transactions that lack apparent economic or lawful purpose should be given further scrutiny. The firm must make inquiries into the background and purpose of any unusual transactions and document its findings. This information should be available to the relevant authorities should the need arise. Periodic review of customer identification and beneficial ownership information should be conducted to ensure the information is kept up to date, particularly for higher-risk categories of customers. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to escalate the transaction for further review and investigation to determine if it should be reported to the relevant authorities.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Under which of the following scenarios can an issuer utilize the Section 277 exemption of the Securities and Futures Act (SFA) concerning the requirement to lodge a full prospectus with MAS, and instead lodge an Offer Information Statement (OIS)?
Correct
Section 277 of the SFA provides an exemption from the full prospectus requirement for issuers whose shares are listed on the SGX-ST, provided they lodge an Offer Information Statement (OIS) with MAS. This exemption does not extend to structured notes issued by banks licensed under the Banking Act or entities specified by MAS for issuing structured notes. Therefore, a company listed on the SGX-ST issuing corporate bonds can utilize the Section 277 exemption, while a bank issuing structured notes cannot.
Incorrect
Section 277 of the SFA provides an exemption from the full prospectus requirement for issuers whose shares are listed on the SGX-ST, provided they lodge an Offer Information Statement (OIS) with MAS. This exemption does not extend to structured notes issued by banks licensed under the Banking Act or entities specified by MAS for issuing structured notes. Therefore, a company listed on the SGX-ST issuing corporate bonds can utilize the Section 277 exemption, while a bank issuing structured notes cannot.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Under the Singapore Securities and Futures Act (SFA), specifically Section 268 concerning the obligations of a borrowing entity, what is the maximum financial penalty that can be imposed for failing to provide the required financial accounts and balance sheets, assuming the offense is ongoing after an initial conviction?
Correct
According to Section 268(7) of the SFA, failure to provide the required accounts and balance sheets constitutes an offense. The penalty for this offense is a fine not exceeding S$15,000, and for a continuing offense, a further fine not exceeding S$1,000 for each day the offense continues after conviction. This provision aims to ensure transparency and accountability from borrowing entities to protect investors.
Incorrect
According to Section 268(7) of the SFA, failure to provide the required accounts and balance sheets constitutes an offense. The penalty for this offense is a fine not exceeding S$15,000, and for a continuing offense, a further fine not exceeding S$1,000 for each day the offense continues after conviction. This provision aims to ensure transparency and accountability from borrowing entities to protect investors.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A Capital Markets Services (CMS) license holder establishes a business relationship with a new client. After 45 business days, the client’s identity verification is still pending due to delays in receiving necessary documentation from the client. According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02 on anti-money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism (AML/CFT), what action should the CMS license holder take?
Correct
According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02, a CMS license holder must suspend business relations with a customer if verification remains uncompleted 30 business days after the establishment of business relations, and terminate business relations if verification remains uncompleted 120 business days after the establishment of business relations. These time limitations must be factored into its policies, procedures and controls. Therefore, if the verification is still pending after 45 days, the CMS license holder is required to terminate the business relationship.
Incorrect
According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02, a CMS license holder must suspend business relations with a customer if verification remains uncompleted 30 business days after the establishment of business relations, and terminate business relations if verification remains uncompleted 120 business days after the establishment of business relations. These time limitations must be factored into its policies, procedures and controls. Therefore, if the verification is still pending after 45 days, the CMS license holder is required to terminate the business relationship.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
In a scenario where Person A acquires 32% of Company X’s voting rights, while Person B already holds 35%, potentially triggering a mandatory offer under Rule 14 of the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers, under what condition would the Securities Industry Council (SIC) MOST likely waive this requirement, assuming all other regulatory requirements are met?
Correct
According to the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers, specifically Rule 14.1 and its related notes, the Securities Industry Council (SIC) may grant a waiver from the mandatory offer requirement under specific conditions. One such condition involves a ‘balancing block’ scenario where a person or group acquires 30% or more of the voting rights while another party already holds a similar or larger stake. The SIC typically requires written confirmation from shareholders holding at least 50% of the voting rights stating they will not accept the offer. This condition ensures that a substantial portion of the existing shareholders are content with the current ownership structure and do not wish to tender their shares in a mandatory offer. The other options do not accurately reflect the conditions under which the SIC would typically waive the mandatory offer requirement in a balancing block situation.
Incorrect
According to the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers, specifically Rule 14.1 and its related notes, the Securities Industry Council (SIC) may grant a waiver from the mandatory offer requirement under specific conditions. One such condition involves a ‘balancing block’ scenario where a person or group acquires 30% or more of the voting rights while another party already holds a similar or larger stake. The SIC typically requires written confirmation from shareholders holding at least 50% of the voting rights stating they will not accept the offer. This condition ensures that a substantial portion of the existing shareholders are content with the current ownership structure and do not wish to tender their shares in a mandatory offer. The other options do not accurately reflect the conditions under which the SIC would typically waive the mandatory offer requirement in a balancing block situation.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A Catalist Issuer is preparing to release its annual report to shareholders. Which of the following actions is MOST critical to ensure compliance with the Catalist Listing Manual regarding sponsor oversight?
Correct
According to Rule 753(2) of the Catalist Listing Manual, a Catalist Issuer must consult its sponsor on documents to be released to its shareholders or to the market before release to ensure compliance with the Catalist Listing Manual and proper disclosure. Rules 226(2)(b) and 753(2) of the Catalist Listing Manual specify that a document reviewed by the sponsor must display a statement prominently on the front cover, including the sponsor’s name and contact details, and a disclaimer that SGX-ST assumes no responsibility for the document’s contents. Therefore, the presence of the sponsor’s review statement on the front cover is a key indicator of compliance.
Incorrect
According to Rule 753(2) of the Catalist Listing Manual, a Catalist Issuer must consult its sponsor on documents to be released to its shareholders or to the market before release to ensure compliance with the Catalist Listing Manual and proper disclosure. Rules 226(2)(b) and 753(2) of the Catalist Listing Manual specify that a document reviewed by the sponsor must display a statement prominently on the front cover, including the sponsor’s name and contact details, and a disclaimer that SGX-ST assumes no responsibility for the document’s contents. Therefore, the presence of the sponsor’s review statement on the front cover is a key indicator of compliance.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
According to the SGX-ST Mainboard Rules, what is the shortest minimum moratorium period applicable to promoters of an issuer, assuming the issuer satisfies the requirements for listing?
Correct
According to Rule 229(1) and 229(2) of the Mainboard Rules, the minimum moratorium period for promoters depends on which profit test or market capitalization test the issuer satisfies. Under Alternative 1, promoters’ 100% shareholdings at the time of listing are subject to a moratorium for at least 6 months after listing. Under Alternative 2, promoters’ 100% shareholdings at the time of listing are subject to a moratorium for at least 6 months after listing, and at least 50% of original shareholdings at the time of listing (adjusted for any bonus issue or subdivision) for the next 6 months. Under the Market Capitalisation Test, the same moratorium period as Alternative 2 applies. Therefore, the shortest possible moratorium period for promoters under the Mainboard Rules is 6 months on 100% of their shareholdings.
Incorrect
According to Rule 229(1) and 229(2) of the Mainboard Rules, the minimum moratorium period for promoters depends on which profit test or market capitalization test the issuer satisfies. Under Alternative 1, promoters’ 100% shareholdings at the time of listing are subject to a moratorium for at least 6 months after listing. Under Alternative 2, promoters’ 100% shareholdings at the time of listing are subject to a moratorium for at least 6 months after listing, and at least 50% of original shareholdings at the time of listing (adjusted for any bonus issue or subdivision) for the next 6 months. Under the Market Capitalisation Test, the same moratorium period as Alternative 2 applies. Therefore, the shortest possible moratorium period for promoters under the Mainboard Rules is 6 months on 100% of their shareholdings.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A compliance officer at a SGX-ST listed company discovers that a senior executive traded company shares one week before the scheduled release of the quarterly financial results. According to best practices outlined in the SGX-ST Listing Manual concerning insider trading prevention, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Correct
According to the SGX-ST Listing Manual, listed entities should have an internal compliance code to prevent officers from dealing in the entity’s securities on short-term considerations and during blackout periods. The blackout period commences two weeks before the announcement of the entity’s financial statements for each of the first three quarters of its financial year, and one month before half year or financial year, and ending on the date of announcement of the relevant results. This is to prevent insider trading and maintain market integrity.
Incorrect
According to the SGX-ST Listing Manual, listed entities should have an internal compliance code to prevent officers from dealing in the entity’s securities on short-term considerations and during blackout periods. The blackout period commences two weeks before the announcement of the entity’s financial statements for each of the first three quarters of its financial year, and one month before half year or financial year, and ending on the date of announcement of the relevant results. This is to prevent insider trading and maintain market integrity.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A corporate finance firm is advising Company X on a potential merger. An analyst in the firm’s research department, who is not involved in the merger deal, overhears a conversation revealing material non-public information about Company X. The research department then issues a ‘buy’ recommendation on Company X’s stock. Under the Securities and Futures Act (SFA), which condition must be met for the firm to successfully invoke the ‘Chinese Wall’ defense against insider trading?
Correct
The ‘Chinese Wall’ defense, as outlined in the Securities and Futures Act (SFA), protects corporations and partnerships from insider trading liability when an employee possesses inside information but does not influence the decision to trade. This defense requires that the decision to deal in securities is made by someone other than the individual with inside information, that reasonable arrangements are in place to prevent communication of the inside information to the decision-maker, and that the inside information is not actually communicated. Therefore, the key element is the prevention of information flow and independent decision-making.
Incorrect
The ‘Chinese Wall’ defense, as outlined in the Securities and Futures Act (SFA), protects corporations and partnerships from insider trading liability when an employee possesses inside information but does not influence the decision to trade. This defense requires that the decision to deal in securities is made by someone other than the individual with inside information, that reasonable arrangements are in place to prevent communication of the inside information to the decision-maker, and that the inside information is not actually communicated. Therefore, the key element is the prevention of information flow and independent decision-making.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Under the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers, which of the following scenarios would classify individuals as ‘acting in concert’?
Correct
According to the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers, certain individuals and entities are considered ‘acting in concert.’ This definition is crucial for determining when parties are collaborating in a takeover bid, triggering specific obligations and thresholds under the Code. The definition includes individuals, their close relatives, related trusts, those accustomed to acting on their instructions, companies they control, and those providing financial assistance for purchasing voting rights. This broad definition aims to capture various forms of collaboration, ensuring transparency and fairness in takeover situations. The scenario describes a situation where a person has provided financial assistance to another for the purchase of voting rights. This falls squarely within the definition of ‘acting in concert’ as outlined in the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers.
Incorrect
According to the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers, certain individuals and entities are considered ‘acting in concert.’ This definition is crucial for determining when parties are collaborating in a takeover bid, triggering specific obligations and thresholds under the Code. The definition includes individuals, their close relatives, related trusts, those accustomed to acting on their instructions, companies they control, and those providing financial assistance for purchasing voting rights. This broad definition aims to capture various forms of collaboration, ensuring transparency and fairness in takeover situations. The scenario describes a situation where a person has provided financial assistance to another for the purchase of voting rights. This falls squarely within the definition of ‘acting in concert’ as outlined in the Singapore Code on Take-overs and Mergers.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Following the disposal of its core business, a company listed on the SGX Mainboard becomes a cash company. After 12 months, the company has not secured a new listing but has signed a definitive agreement for a reverse takeover. Under SGX-ST regulations, what is the MOST likely outcome regarding the company’s listing status, considering Rule 1018(2) of the Mainboard Listing Manual?
Correct
According to Rule 1018(2) of the Mainboard Listing Manual and Rule 1017(2) of the Catalist Listing Manual, if a listed issuer is unable to meet the requirements for a new listing within 12 months from the time it becomes a cash company, SGX-ST will delist the listed issuer. A maximum of six-month extension may be granted if the listed issuer has already signed a definitive agreement for the acquisition of a new business, provided the acquisition is completed within this extension period and the issuer keeps investors informed of its progress. If the issuer fails to meet its milestones or complete the acquisition despite the extension, no further extension will be granted, and the issuer will be delisted. The listed issuer must offer a reasonable exit alternative, typically in cash, to its shareholders within 6 months of delisting.
Incorrect
According to Rule 1018(2) of the Mainboard Listing Manual and Rule 1017(2) of the Catalist Listing Manual, if a listed issuer is unable to meet the requirements for a new listing within 12 months from the time it becomes a cash company, SGX-ST will delist the listed issuer. A maximum of six-month extension may be granted if the listed issuer has already signed a definitive agreement for the acquisition of a new business, provided the acquisition is completed within this extension period and the issuer keeps investors informed of its progress. If the issuer fails to meet its milestones or complete the acquisition despite the extension, no further extension will be granted, and the issuer will be delisted. The listed issuer must offer a reasonable exit alternative, typically in cash, to its shareholders within 6 months of delisting.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
During the preparation of a prospectus for an IPO, a director relied on financial projections provided by an independent market research firm. If the prospectus contains a misleading statement based on these projections, under what condition, according to the Securities and Futures Act (SFA), might the director NOT be held liable?
Correct
According to Section 302 of the SFA, read with Section 255(3), a person may not be held liable for a false or misleading statement in a prospectus if they reasonably relied on information provided by someone who is not a director, employee, or agent of the company. This provision aims to protect individuals who, in good faith, depend on external expertise or data during the prospectus preparation process. The other options do not provide a valid defense under the specified sections of the SFA.
Incorrect
According to Section 302 of the SFA, read with Section 255(3), a person may not be held liable for a false or misleading statement in a prospectus if they reasonably relied on information provided by someone who is not a director, employee, or agent of the company. This provision aims to protect individuals who, in good faith, depend on external expertise or data during the prospectus preparation process. The other options do not provide a valid defense under the specified sections of the SFA.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
In assessing the classification of a transaction under Chapter 10 of the SGX-ST Listing Manual, what authority does the SGX-ST hold regarding multiple transactions completed within a 12-month period?
Correct
According to Rule 1005 of the Mainboard Listing Manual, SGX-ST has the authority to aggregate separate transactions completed within the last 12 months and treat them as a single transaction when determining the classification of a transaction. This aggregation is performed to prevent companies from circumventing the disclosure and approval requirements by splitting a larger transaction into smaller, non-reportable ones. The decision to aggregate is based on whether the transactions are related or part of a series of transactions. The other options do not accurately reflect SGX-ST’s powers regarding transaction aggregation.
Incorrect
According to Rule 1005 of the Mainboard Listing Manual, SGX-ST has the authority to aggregate separate transactions completed within the last 12 months and treat them as a single transaction when determining the classification of a transaction. This aggregation is performed to prevent companies from circumventing the disclosure and approval requirements by splitting a larger transaction into smaller, non-reportable ones. The decision to aggregate is based on whether the transactions are related or part of a series of transactions. The other options do not accurately reflect SGX-ST’s powers regarding transaction aggregation.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
In the process of listing a REIT on the SGX-ST Mainboard, when must the Manager submit the list of documents prescribed in Rule 245 of the Mainboard Rules to the SGX-ST?
Correct
According to Rule 245 of the Mainboard Rules, the Manager must submit a list of documents to SGX-ST after receiving the ETL Letter but before the issuance of the prospectus. This step ensures that SGX-ST has all necessary information before the public offering commences. Submitting before receiving the ETL letter would be premature, while submitting after the prospectus is issued would be too late in the process. Submitting the documents concurrently with the listing application does not align with the procedural sequence outlined in the Mainboard Rules.
Incorrect
According to Rule 245 of the Mainboard Rules, the Manager must submit a list of documents to SGX-ST after receiving the ETL Letter but before the issuance of the prospectus. This step ensures that SGX-ST has all necessary information before the public offering commences. Submitting before receiving the ETL letter would be premature, while submitting after the prospectus is issued would be too late in the process. Submitting the documents concurrently with the listing application does not align with the procedural sequence outlined in the Mainboard Rules.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Under MAS Notice SFA 04-N02 and MAS Notice 626 concerning the prevention of money laundering and countering the financing of terrorism, what is the primary obligation of a Capital Markets Services (CMS) license holder?
Correct
According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02 and MAS Notice 626, CMS license holders must implement thorough due diligence and controls to prevent the capital markets system from being used for criminal activities. This includes identifying and verifying the identities of their customers, understanding the nature and purpose of their business relationships, and conducting ongoing monitoring of transactions to detect suspicious activities. The key is to establish a risk-based approach, tailoring the intensity of due diligence to the assessed risk level of the customer and the transaction. While reporting suspicious transactions is crucial, it is a consequence of the due diligence process, not the primary obligation. Similarly, while sanctions compliance is important, it is a separate, though related, obligation. Ensuring profitability is not directly related to AML/CFT obligations.
Incorrect
According to MAS Notice SFA 04-N02 and MAS Notice 626, CMS license holders must implement thorough due diligence and controls to prevent the capital markets system from being used for criminal activities. This includes identifying and verifying the identities of their customers, understanding the nature and purpose of their business relationships, and conducting ongoing monitoring of transactions to detect suspicious activities. The key is to establish a risk-based approach, tailoring the intensity of due diligence to the assessed risk level of the customer and the transaction. While reporting suspicious transactions is crucial, it is a consequence of the due diligence process, not the primary obligation. Similarly, while sanctions compliance is important, it is a separate, though related, obligation. Ensuring profitability is not directly related to AML/CFT obligations.